Full ASVAB Practice Form 3: Body Systems, Levers and Gears

Answer: D

Correct answer: commensalism. Judge the effect on each partner separately. The bird benefits and the cactus is unaffected, which is the plus/zero pattern of commensalism.

• A: Mutualism needs both partners to benefit, but the cactus gains nothing here.
• B: In parasitism the host is harmed, and the cactus is not harmed by the nest.
• C: Predation involves one organism killing and eating another, which does not happen here.
• D (correct): The bird benefits from protection while the cactus is unaffected, the plus/zero pattern of commensalism.

Answer: C

Correct answer: It slows the flow of the camper's body heat out to the cold air. Insulation does not create warmth; it slows energy transfer. Heat flows from the warm camper toward the cold air, and the still air trapped in the bag's filling conducts poorly and stops convection, so the body's own energy escapes more slowly.

• A: Insulation does not generate any energy; the only warmth comes from the camper's body.
• B: Cold is not something that flows; energy flows from the warm camper outward.
• C (correct): Trapped still air in the filling conducts poorly and blocks convection, so energy leaves the body more slowly.
• D: Cold is not a form of energy that can be reflected; the bag reduces outward energy loss.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Calcium. The alkaline earth metals make up group 2, which includes beryllium, magnesium, calcium, strontium, barium and radium. Calcium is the only group 2 element listed.

• A: Sodium is in group 1, so it is an alkali metal, not an alkaline earth metal.
• B (correct): Calcium is in group 2, the alkaline earth metals, and forms a +2 ion.
• C: Chlorine is a group 17 halogen, a nonmetal.
• D: Iron is in the middle of the table, among the transition metals.

Answer: B

Correct answer: By how many surviving offspring it leaves in its environment. Fitness means reproductive success in a particular environment, counted by surviving offspring. A small, plain animal that raises many young has higher fitness than a large, strong one that raises none.

• A: Fitness in evolution is not physical strength or speed; a strong, fast animal that leaves no offspring has low fitness.
• B (correct): Evolutionary fitness is reproductive success: the number of surviving offspring compared with others in the same setting.
• C: Size can help or hurt depending on the environment, so it is not the measure of fitness itself.
• D: Living long without reproducing adds nothing to the next generation, so lifespan alone does not measure fitness.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Neap tides with a smaller range. Near first and third quarter the Sun and Moon pull at roughly right angles, so their tide-raising effects partly offset. The result is neap tides, with a smaller difference between high and low water than near new or full moon.

• A: Spring tides come near new and full moon, when the Sun and Moon line up and their effects add.
• B (correct): At right angles the Sun's and Moon's tidal effects partly cancel, so the gap between high and low water shrinks.
• C: The Moon and Sun still produce tidal forces at quarter phases; the range is only reduced.
• D: The word spring in spring tide refers to a strong tidal range, not the season of the year.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 4 m/s. On a distance-time graph, the slope is the speed. Divide the change in distance by the change in time.

• A: This divides 38 m by 10 s as if the line started at the origin; the graph passes through 6 m at 2 s.
• B: This uses only the first point, 6 m divided by 2 s, instead of the change between the two points.
• C (correct): Slope equals the change in distance, 32 m, divided by the change in time, 8 s, which gives 4 m/s.
• D: This divides the change in time by the change in distance, which flips the rate upside down.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 150 s. For constant speed, use

Here

• A (correct): Time equals distance divided by speed: 1,800 m / 12 m/s = 150 s.
• B: This drops a zero; 12 m/s for 15 s covers only 180 m.
• C: This adds a zero; 12 m/s for 1,500 s would cover 18,000 m.
• D: This multiplies distance by speed instead of dividing, which does not give a time.

Answer: C

Correct answer: Neuron, nervous tissue, brain, nervous system. Build up in layers: a single cell (neuron), a group of similar cells (nervous tissue), an organ made of tissues (brain), and a set of cooperating organs (nervous system).

• A: A tissue is a group of many cells, so a single neuron must come before nervous tissue.
• B: The brain is an organ made of tissues, so nervous tissue must come before the brain.
• C (correct): A cell forms tissue, tissues form an organ, and organs work together as a system.
• D: The brain is one organ within the nervous system, so the system is the larger level.

Answer: C

Correct answer: About 1,000 times. The pH scale is logarithmic: each one-unit drop means about ten times more hydrogen-ion activity. The drop is

units, so the increase is

times.

• A: This treats the pH scale as linear and just uses the 3-unit difference.
• B: A factor of 100 matches a 2-unit change; this drop is 3 units.
• C (correct): Each pH unit is a tenfold change, and three units give 10 × 10 × 10 = 1,000.
• D: Dividing 8 by 5 treats pH values as simple amounts instead of steps on a logarithmic scale.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Liver. When amino acids are broken down, the liver turns the toxic ammonia into urea. Blood carries the urea to the kidneys, which filter it into urine. Making a substance and removing it are different jobs.

• A: The kidneys filter urea out of the blood into urine, but they do not make it.
• B (correct): The liver converts ammonia from broken-down amino acids into urea, which the blood then carries to the kidneys.
• C: The bladder only stores urine; it neither forms urea nor filters blood.
• D: The large intestine absorbs water from food residue; urea is a metabolic waste, not undigested food.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Star Y is 2 times as far away. For equal light output, apparent brightness varies with 1 divided by distance squared. Brightness 1/4 as great means the distance squared is 4 times as great, so the distance is

times as great.

• A: This assumes brightness drops in direct proportion to distance, but it drops with the square of distance.
• B (correct): Brightness falls with the square of distance, and 2 squared is 4, matching one quarter the brightness.
• C: This squares the brightness ratio instead of taking its square root.
• D: A closer star of equal power would look brighter, not dimmer.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 4. Each pH unit is a tenfold change, and fewer hydrogen ions means a higher pH. One-hundredth is a factor of 100 = 10 x 10, so sample B is 2 units higher than sample A, at pH

Ten times more hydrogen ions is 1 unit lower, so sample C is at pH

• A (correct): B is 2 pH units above A, at pH 5; ten times more hydrogen ions is 1 unit lower, so C is at pH 4.
• B: This raises the pH for C, but more hydrogen ions means a lower pH, not a higher one.
• C: This moves the pH the wrong way at each step; fewer hydrogen ions means a higher pH, not a lower one.
• D: This is the pH of sample B; the final step to sample C was skipped.

Answer: A

Correct answer: The sodium-potassium pump moving sodium out and potassium in. Ask which process moves a substance against its gradient. Diffusion, osmosis and facilitated diffusion all run downhill and need no ATP. The sodium-potassium pump pushes ions uphill using ATP, so it is the process that stops when ATP production fails.

• A (correct): The pump moves ions against their gradients, which is active transport and requires ATP, so it stops when ATP runs out.
• B: Oxygen crosses by simple diffusion down its gradient, which uses no cell energy.
• C: Osmosis is passive; water moves toward higher solute without the cell spending ATP.
• D: Movement down a gradient through a carrier is facilitated diffusion, which needs no ATP.

Answer: D

Correct answer: River B, at 4 mg/L compared with 2 mg/L for River A. Concentration is amount per volume, so divide the pollutant per second by the water per second.

For River A, 600 mg/s ÷ 300

mg/L. For River B, 200 mg/s ÷ 50

mg/L. River B carries less pollutant in total but its water is twice as concentrated.

• A: A larger total load can come from carrying more water; concentration needs the amount per liter.
• B: The concentrations work out to 2 mg/L and 4 mg/L, which are not equal.
• C: This divides flow by load for River B instead of load by flow.
• D (correct): Dividing each load by its flow gives 600/300 = 2 mg/L for A and 200/50 = 4 mg/L for B.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Sample X, because its dew point is higher. Relative humidity depends on temperature, so it cannot be used alone to compare moisture in air samples at different temperatures. Dew point reflects the actual water-vapor content: the higher the dew point, the more vapor.

Sample X has the higher dew point (18 °C versus 11 °C), so it holds more water vapor despite its lower relative humidity.

• A: Relative humidity compares vapor to the saturation amount at that temperature, so a cool sample can have high relative humidity with little vapor.
• B: Their dew points differ by 7 °C, which shows they hold different amounts of water vapor.
• C: Cooler air reaches saturation at a lower vapor content, so it does not hold more vapor.
• D (correct): Dew point tracks actual moisture content, and X's dew point of 18 °C is higher than Y's 11 °C.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 108 bottles. "A dozen" means 12, and the trailer length is extra information. Nine equal boxes of 12 give

bottles.

• A: This adds 12 and 9 instead of multiplying for equal groups.
• B: This multiplies the 9 boxes by the trailer length, a number that has nothing to do with the bottles.
• C: This multiplies a dozen by the trailer length, which is an extra fact.
• D (correct): A dozen is 12, and 9 boxes of 12 is 9 x 12 = 108 bottles.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 25.5 feet. Each inch on the blueprint stands for 6 feet, so multiply:

• A: This adds 6 to 4.25 instead of multiplying by the scale.
• B: This uses only the whole 4 inches and drops the 0.25 inch, which is another 1.5 feet.
• C: This divides 6 by 4.25, which turns the scale upside down.
• D (correct): Multiplying drawing inches by feet per inch gives 4.25 × 6 = 25.5 feet.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 0. Count places to the right of the decimal point: tenths (4), hundredths (0), thousandths (6). The digit in the hundredths place is 0.

• A (correct): The hundredths place is the second place to the right of the decimal point, and that digit is 0.
• B: 4 is the first digit after the decimal point, so it is in the tenths place.
• C: 6 is the third digit after the decimal point, so it is in the thousandths place.
• D: 8 is just left of the decimal point, so it is in the ones place, not a decimal place.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 5 hours. Add the rates:

of the container per hour. Invert: 5 hours.

• A: This adds the two times; a second worker shortens the job instead of lengthening it.
• B: This averages the two equal times, which ignores the extra help.
• C (correct): Each forklift does 1/10 per hour, so together they do 2/10 = 1/5 per hour and need 5 hours.
• D: This stops at the combined rate of 1/5 container per hour and forgets to invert it.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 47 hours. Regular pay for 40 hours:

The remaining

was overtime at

per hour, so

overtime hours. Total:

• A: This divides the whole $1,010 by $20, as if no hours were paid at the higher rate.
• B: This is only the overtime hours; the 40 regular hours must be added.
• C: This divides the $210 by $40, a double-time rate, instead of the $30 time-and-a-half rate.
• D (correct): Forty hours pay $800, leaving $210 at the $30 overtime rate, which is 7 overtime hours; 40 + 7 = 47.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 60%. Percent equals part divided by whole. The whole is all 55 apprentices and the part is the 33 who passed.

which is 60 percent.

• A: This divides the whole by the part, 55 by 33; a part of a group cannot be more than 100 percent of it.
• B: This is the percent who did not pass on the first attempt, 22 out of 55.
• C (correct): Dividing the part, 33, by the whole group, 55, gives 0.60, which is 60 percent.
• D: This uses the number who passed as the percent without dividing by the total of 55.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 45 minutes. Use

Convert to minutes:

• A (correct): Time is 27 divided by 36, which is 0.75 hour, and 0.75 times 60 is 45 minutes.
• B: This reads 0.75 hour as 75 minutes instead of multiplying the decimal by 60.
• C: This divides the speed by the distance, 36 by 27, which inverts the formula.
• D: The quotient 0.75 is in hours because the speed is per hour, not per minute.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 48 mph. Out:

Back:

The truck covers 48 miles in 1 hour, so its average speed is 48 mph. With equal distances the average is pulled toward the slower speed.

• A: This is the simple mean of 40 and 60, which ignores the extra time spent at the slower speed.
• B (correct): Total distance 48 miles divided by total time 1 hour gives 48 mph.
• C: This divides only the one-way distance by the total time.
• D: This adds the two speeds instead of dividing total distance by total time.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 2,340 rolls. Unit rate:

rolls per minute.

Time in minutes: 1 hour 30 minutes = 90 minutes, so the total is

rolls.

• A (correct): The rate is 26 rolls per minute, and 1 hour 30 minutes is 90 minutes, so 26 times 90 is 2,340.
• B: This multiplies the per-minute rate by 1.5 hours, mixing minutes and hours.
• C: This covers only 60 minutes and leaves out the extra 30 minutes.
• D: This multiplies 390 by 15 instead of dividing to get the per-minute rate first.

Answer: D

Correct answer: $83. Profit is revenue minus cost. Revenue:

Cost:

Profit:

• A: This counts the cost of only the 100 bottles sold; the club paid for all 120 bottles.
• B: This assumes all 120 bottles were sold at a $0.90 gain each.
• C: This is the revenue; the cost of the bottles must be subtracted to find profit.
• D (correct): Revenue is 100 × 1.25 = $125 and cost is 120 × 0.35 = $42, so profit is 125 − 42 = $83.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 23 manuals. Divide:

so 1,150 ÷ 48 is 23 remainder 46.

The question asks for complete manuals, so the leftover 46 sheets are dropped, giving 23 manuals.

• A (correct): 48 × 23 = 1,104, and the 46 sheets left are not enough for another manual.
• B: Rounding up does not work here: 48 × 24 = 1,152 needs 2 more sheets than the shop has.
• C: 46 is the number of sheets left over, not a count of manuals.
• D: 22 manuals use only 1,056 sheets, leaving enough paper for one more.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 1/6. Combined rate:

tank per hour.

In 2 hours:

filled, so

is still empty.

• A: This adds the hourly rates straight across (2/10) before doubling, which does not give the true combined rate.
• B: This uses the work of only 1 hour; the pipes run for 2 hours.
• C: This is the fraction of the tank that is filled, not the part still empty.
• D (correct): Together the pipes fill 5/12 per hour, so 2 hours fill 10/12 = 5/6, and 1/6 is still empty.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 3 hours. In 3 hours Pump A fills

of the tank, so 3/4 remains.

Together:

of the tank per hour.

Time left:

• A (correct): Pump A fills 1/4 in 3 hours, leaving 3/4; together the pumps fill 1/4 per hour, so 3 more hours are needed.
• B: This is the total filling time including Pump A's first 3 hours, not the time after Pump B starts.
• C: This is how long both pumps together would take to fill the whole tank, ignoring the part already filled.
• D: This is how long Pump B alone would take to fill the remaining 3/4, leaving out Pump A's help.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 5 pounds. Let x be the pounds of $10 tea. Total cost must equal $6 times the total weight:

So

giving

• A: This reverses the ratio; with 20 pounds added the blend would cost $240 for 30 pounds, or $8 per pound.
• B: Equal amounts would give a blend at $7 per pound, the plain average of the two prices.
• C (correct): With 5 pounds added, the blend costs $40 + $50 = $90 for 15 pounds, which is $6 per pound.
• D: This uses the $2 gap between $4 and $6 as the number of pounds; the blend would cost $60 for 12 pounds, or $5 per pound.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 12. Work from the innermost grouping outward. Parentheses:

Brackets:

Inside the braces:

Finally, the 3 next to the braces means multiply:

• A: This subtracts 20 − 2 before multiplying 2 by the brackets, giving 18 × 8 × 3.
• B: This drops the 2 in front of the brackets, giving 3 × (20 − 8).
• C: This multiplies only the 20 by 3, giving 60 − 16, instead of multiplying the whole braced value by 3.
• D (correct): Inside out: 12 − 9 = 3, 5 + 3 = 8, 2 × 8 = 16, 20 − 16 = 4, and 3 × 4 = 12.

Answer: B

Correct answer: extend. The ending -en on an adjective forms a verb meaning to make or become. Lengthen means to make longer, so the verb extend is the match.

• A: This is the noun base; lengthen is a verb, so a noun cannot replace it.
• B (correct): Long plus -en means to make longer, which is to extend.
• C: Shorten uses the same -en ending on the opposite base.
• D: Measuring finds how long something is without changing it.

Answer: A

Correct answer: logical. Rational comes from reason, meaning to think logically, and describes thinking or choices based on logic. Logical is the synonym. Watch the look-alike rationed and the family member rationalize, which means making excuses.

• A (correct): Rational means based on reason and logic, so logical is a direct synonym.
• B: Emotional means driven by feelings, the opposite of rational.
• C: Rationed looks similar but means shared out in limited amounts, as with food or fuel.
• D: This describes rationalize, which usually means inventing believable excuses rather than reasoning carefully.

Answer: C

Correct answer: present. CURRENT sits before the noun "schedule," so it is the adjective meaning in effect now. "According to the present schedule" keeps the meaning.

• A: Current as a noun names a flow of water or electricity, but here it is an adjective before "schedule."
• B: Electric current is a noun sense; a schedule has nothing to do with electricity.
• C (correct): Placed before a noun, current means the one in effect now, so "the present schedule" fits.
• D: Former is close to the opposite; a former schedule would no longer tell you closing times.

Answer: D

Correct answer: conceited. Arrogant means having an inflated sense of one's own importance and treating others as inferior. Confident has the same topic but a positive tone, so it fails the tone filter; conceited matches both meaning and negative tone.

• A: Confident shares the idea of self-belief but is positive and justified; arrogant adds the negative judgment of looking down on others.
• B: Timid means lacking courage or self-assurance, close to the opposite of arrogant.
• C: Humble describes someone who does not overrate themselves, the opposite of arrogant.
• D (correct): Arrogant and conceited both describe someone who overrates themselves and looks down on others.

Answer: C

Correct answer: Marked with a later date. Post- means after. Writing the check before payday but dating it the 15th puts a later date on it, so postdated means marked with a later date.

• A: Mailed after the due date confuses post- with the mail; the prefix changes the date written on the check.
• B: Marked with an earlier date reverses the direction; that would be backdating.
• C (correct): Post- means after, so a postdated check carries a date later than the day it was written.
• D: Signed by two people describes a joint act, which would need co-; post- is about time.

Answer: D

Correct answer: approval. The words attached to PASSAGE are "of the new highway safety bill" and "by the state senate," which describe lawmaking. Passage here means approval of the bill.

• A: A passage can be a corridor, but supporters do not cheer a hallway of a bill.
• B: A passage can be a section of text, yet senators vote on the whole bill, not a quoted piece.
• C: A passage can be a trip, which does not connect to a bill or a senate.
• D (correct): The partners "bill" and "by the state senate" point to a vote, so passage means approval.

Answer: B

Correct answer: honor deeply. Predict first: people at a memorial treat a memory with great respect. Honor deeply matches that meaning, while revise is a look-alike and forget is an opposite.

• A: Revise only looks like revere; it means to change or correct a text, a sound-alike trap.
• B (correct): To revere is to regard with deep respect and admiration, which fits a memorial ceremony.
• C: Awe can include some fear, but revere centers on respect, not being afraid.
• D: This reverses the attitude; people who revere a memory keep it alive.

Answer: D

Correct answer: clumsy. The result clue, knocking over two pallets, shows poor handling. INEPT means lacking skill or awkward, so clumsy is the match; careful points the opposite way.

• A: Eager describes willingness, not the lack of skill shown by the knocked-over pallets.
• B: Careful is closer to the opposite of what knocking over pallets suggests.
• C: Fatigue might cause mistakes, but the sentence gives no clue about energy, only about poor handling.
• D (correct): Clumsy fits: knocking over two pallets in an hour shows a lack of skill with the forklift.

Answer: B

Correct answer: look over and improve. Revise joins re, again, and vis, see. To revise a schedule is to look it over again and make corrections or improvements.

• A: Handing out copies is a later step; nothing in re plus vis means printing.
• B (correct): Re means again and vis means see, so to revise is to look at work again in order to correct or improve it.
• C: Revising keeps the schedule and fixes it, while canceling throws it out.
• D: Reading aloud uses voice, not the see root, and does not change the schedule.

Answer: A

Correct answer: expressive and moving. The contrast word though separates style from substance: the words moved people but had few facts. Eloquent is about fluent, powerful expression, so expressive and moving fits, while cogent would require logic and evidence.

• A (correct): Eloquent describes speech that is fluent and stirring in style, which is why listeners were moved.
• B: This is cogent; the sentence notes the words offered few facts, so their power came from style, not logic.
• C: Length is never mentioned; a short speech can be eloquent.
• D: The setting is sad, but eloquent describes how well something is expressed, not the mood it carries.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Somewhat dry. Semi- means partly, and arid means dry. A region with rain for grass but not for forests is partly dry, or somewhat dry; completely dry is the wrong degree.

• A: Completely dry is the wrong degree; semi- means partly, and the region does get rain.
• B (correct): Semi- means partly, and arid means dry, so a semiarid region is somewhat dry.
• C: Very wet reverses the base arid and contradicts the lack of rain for forests.
• D: Dry twice a year confuses semi- with the time sense of biannual.

Answer: C

Correct answer: utterly ruined. "Did not merely damage" signals a stronger degree than damage, and the result, not one house standing, is total destruction. The choice with matching strength is utterly ruined.

• A: This is too weak; the sentence says the flood did more than merely damage the village.
• B: This is related to the topic, but flooding alone does not mean every house was destroyed.
• C (correct): "Not merely damage" and "not a single house standing" call for the strongest level of destruction.
• D: This shifts the meaning to people's feelings; the sentence describes destruction of buildings.

Answer: A

Correct answer: give up. Predict from the clue: after long negotiation, the company letting go of its claim is the natural outcome. RELINQUISH means to give up or surrender; sell adds a story the sentence does not supply.

• A (correct): Give up fits: after negotiation the company surrenders its claim to the land.
• B: Defend is the opposite: it means to hold on to the claim.
• C: Selling is one possible way to give up land, but the sentence does not say any money changed hands.
• D: Record is loosely related to land claims but does not mean surrendering one.

Answer: D

Correct answer: inactive. Dormant means inactive for now but capable of becoming active again. The clue that scientists still monitor it rules out extinct, which means permanently inactive; erupting is the opposite and hidden is unrelated.

• A: Extinct means no longer able to erupt at all, which overstates dormant; the monitoring shows it could become active again.
• B: This is the opposite; an erupting volcano is active right now.
• C: Dormant does not mean out of sight; the volcano is simply quiet.
• D (correct): Dormant means temporarily quiet or asleep, which inactive captures.

Answer: B

Correct answer: lying under oath. Jur means law or swear, the same root found in jury, and a witness swears an oath before testifying. Perjury is breaking that oath by lying, which is why it can bring prison time.

• A: A witness who stays silent has not made a false sworn statement, so this misses the core idea of lying.
• B (correct): Jur points to law and swearing an oath, and the crime connected with a sworn witness is telling lies after taking that oath.
• C: This grabs the jur letters shared with jury but describes a different crime.
• D: Talking out of turn breaks court rules, but it is not the serious crime of false sworn testimony.

Answer: C

Correct answer: restrict. Replace the word with each choice and check it against the rest of the passage. The rules limit sprinklers to two mornings and ask households to trim use by a fifth, so curb means restrict. "Stop completely" goes too far, because some watering is still allowed.

• A: Curb can name the edge of a street, but that noun meaning makes no sense in "asked homeowners to curb their outdoor water use."
• B: Watching water use is not what the rules describe; they reduce use by limiting sprinkler days.
• C (correct): Sprinklers are allowed only two mornings a week and use should be trimmed, so the district is asking people to restrict, or hold down, their water use.
• D: Sprinklers may still run on two mornings, and the goal is to trim use by a fifth, so use is reduced, not ended.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Sharing rides to post saves each of the soldiers money. The passage keeps returning to the same idea in different words: cut fuel spending, one parking permit, a divided toll, spends far less. Tracking that repeated concept points to the main idea that ride sharing saves each soldier money.

• A: This is one of several examples of savings, so it is too narrow to be the main idea.
• B (correct): Fuel, parking, tolls, and the monthly total all express the same repeated concept: lower costs for each rider.
• C: The passage never mentions travel time; it focuses only on cost.
• D: The passage mentions setting money aside for tire wear as a detail, not as its main argument.

Answer: A

Correct answer: stress that the delay is unacceptable. A rhetorical question is asked for effect. After listing the broken promise, the six-week wait and residents trapped upstairs, the writer asks whether they must wait yet another month, which really means "they have waited far too long." Its job is to push the complaint, not to request information.

• A (correct): It is a rhetorical question; it does not seek an answer but pushes the point that residents have waited too long.
• B: A genuine request for information would ask when the part will arrive; this question is built to make a complaint, not to gather a date.
• C: The question raises the prospect of another month to show frustration; it does not forecast when the work will end.
• D: The passage says residents need firefighters' help to leave, not that they have stopped trying, and the question reports no new fact.

Answer: C

Correct answer: It describes how the thermometers differ without saying which to buy. Describing differences is not the same as evaluating. Each model has an advantage the other lacks, and the passage never states a criterion or a winner, so it compares without recommending.

• A: Speed is one listed difference, but the passage never ranks the thermometers.
• B: Needing no battery is a listed feature, not a stated preference.
• C (correct): The passage lists strengths and drawbacks of each model and names no winner.
• D: The dial model takes about 20 seconds and the digital about 3, so their speed differs.

Answer: C

Correct answer: did the job cheaply or carelessly to save time or money. An idiom must be read from how the passage uses it. After the colon, the carpenter lists thin plywood, skipped roofing paper and too few screws, and the shed then leaked and sagged. So cut corners means did the job cheaply or carelessly to save time or money.

• A: This decodes the words literally; the passage gives no sign that any boards were trimmed, only that steps and materials were skipped.
• B: This reads corners as street corners; the phrase is explained by the building shortcuts listed after the colon, not by travel.
• C (correct): The examples after the colon, thinner wood, a skipped layer and missing screws, all show work done below standard to save effort or cost.
• D: Saving money is part of the idea, but the leaking roof and crooked door show the shortcuts were harmful, so smart misreads the negative tone.

Answer: A

Correct answer: She checked that the battery had a full charge. Map the order: level the tripod, attach the mast, run and connect the cable, check the battery, then switch on and call. The step just ahead of switching on is the battery check. Other steps came before it, and the radio call came after.

• A (correct): The passage says she checked the battery "before turning the radio on," and this is the step listed just ahead of switching it on.
• B: This happened earlier, before the battery check, so it is not the step immediately before switching on.
• C: This came after she switched on the set, so it reverses the order.
• D: This was the second step, well before the radio was turned on.

Answer: D

Correct answer: The two restaurants got a similar result by using different methods. Put method and result in separate rows. The result row matches (about one third less waste), but the method row differs: the diner changed portion sizes, and the grill donated leftovers. A shared outcome says nothing about a shared method.

• A: Only Rosa's Diner changed portion size; this choice assumes a shared method because the results matched.
• B: Donating to the shelter is described only for the Corner Grill; the diner's method was smaller sides with refills.
• C: The passage says each cut waste by about one third, so it names no winner on this measure.
• D (correct): Both cut waste by about one third, but one shrank portions and the other donated unsold food.

Answer: C

Correct answer: In a typical week now, printed-book loans outnumber audiobook loans. Only current numbers are given: about 250 printed books and about 80 audiobooks per week, so printed loans are higher now. To claim growth or decline you need a starting figure, and the passage gives none. The plan for next year depends on the budget, so it is not a sure thing.

• A: No earlier figure for printed books is given, so there is no baseline to show a decline.
• B: Without a figure from before January, the passage cannot show any change in total loans.
• C (correct): The passage gives current figures of about 250 printed books and about 80 audiobooks a week, so printed loans are higher.
• D: The librarian would like to add titles only if the budget allows; this turns a hope into a certainty.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Rural response times improved after the move, but the passage does not show which change caused it. The improvement came after the move, but other changes happened in the same months: more paramedics, a second night crew and repaved roads. Order alone does not prove cause, and the passage never says which change mattered, so the best answer reports the improvement without naming a cause.

• A: This treats "after" as "because" and ignores the new staff, the extra crew and the repaved roads.
• B: This picks a different single cause; the passage gives no evidence that singles out the new staff either.
• C: The passage reports only rural response times, so this claim about downtown has no support.
• D (correct): The passage reports the improvement along with several changes made in the same period and never identifies the cause.

Answer: A

Correct answer: It challenges the plan in the first paragraph with evidence and proposes a different approach. The first paragraph presents a proposal and the supporters' reasons. The second opens with however, offers evidence from other cities that weakens the supporters' claim, and then proposes a different approach. So it challenges the first paragraph's view and offers an alternative.

• A (correct): The word however turns the passage, the studies cast doubt on widening, and the bus lanes are offered instead.
• B: The studies show widened roads filling up again, which undercuts the plan rather than supporting it.
• C: The second paragraph contains no construction steps; it argues against widening for now.
• D: The writer doubts that widening will last and recommends testing buses first instead of widening, so there is no agreement.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 169 square feet. For a square, A = s squared = 13 times 13 = 169 square feet.

• A (correct): Area of a square is side squared: 13 times 13 is 169.
• B: This is 4 times 13, the perimeter, which is a length.
• C: This doubles the side instead of squaring it.
• D: This doubles the correct area; a square's area is simply s squared.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Each input is paired with exactly one output. A function assigns each input exactly one output. Several inputs may share the same output, but no input may have two outputs.

• A: This reverses the rule; different inputs are allowed to share an output.
• B (correct): This is the defining rule of a function.
• C: Sharing outputs is allowed, as in {(1, 5), (2, 5)}.
• D: Inputs can be negative or zero; the rule concerns how many outputs each input has.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 205°. A reflex angle is greater than 180° but less than 360°. Of the measures listed, only 205° falls in that range.

• A (correct): 205° is more than a straight angle (180°) and less than a full turn, so it is reflex.
• B: 175° is less than 180°, so it is obtuse, not reflex.
• C: Exactly 180° is a straight angle; a reflex angle must be larger than 180°.
• D: 95° is between 90° and 180°, which makes it obtuse.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 4.7 × 10⁷ acres. Place the decimal after the first nonzero digit to get 4.7, which is between 1 and 10. Count how many places it moved from the end of 47,000,000: seven places, so the number is $4.7\times 10^7$.

• A: This counts only six places; 4.7 x 10^6 is 4,700,000.
• B (correct): The decimal point moves seven places left to give a front number of 4.7.
• C: This has the right value but is not scientific notation, because the front number 47 is not less than 10.
• D: A negative exponent is used for small numbers, not for a large number like this.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 4x² + 20x + 25. Use

with a = 2x and b = 5:

The area is $4x^2+20x+25$.

• A: This squares each term but leaves out the middle term 2ab.
• B (correct): Using (a + b)^2 = a^2 + 2ab + b^2: 4x^2, 2(2x)(5) = 20x, and 25.
• C: This uses ab for the middle term instead of 2ab.
• D: This forgets to square the coefficient 2 in the first term.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 112 degrees. The bases are parallel, so along each leg the two angles add to 180 degrees. Each angle at the shorter base is

and in an isosceles trapezoid the two angles at the same base are equal.

• A: This is the angle at the longer base; the angles at the other base are its supplements.
• B: This is 90 - 68, treating the angles as complementary instead of supplementary.
• C: This doubles 68; the two angles along a leg add to 180, they are not in a 2-to-1 ratio.
• D (correct): Angles along one leg between parallel bases are supplementary: 180 - 68 = 112 degrees.

Answer: A

Correct answer: −1.8. Count the negatives first: three, an odd number, so the answer is negative. Then multiply the sizes:

The product is −1.8.

• A (correct): Three negative factors give a negative product, and 0.6 × 1.5 × 2 = 1.8.
• B: The size is right, but an odd number of negative factors makes the product negative.
• C: The sign is right, but the decimal point is misplaced; 0.6 × 1.5 = 0.9, and 0.9 × 2 = 1.8.
• D: The sign is right, but the decimal places were dropped; the product is 1.8, not 18.

Answer: B

Correct answer: All real numbers. Distribute:

Subtract 6x from both sides:

The variable is gone and the remaining statement is always true, so every real number is a solution.

• A: This would require a false statement after the x terms cancel, but −8 ≤ 1 is true.
• B (correct): Distributing gives 6x − 8 ≤ 6x + 1; the x terms cancel and −8 ≤ 1 is always true.
• C: Once the x terms cancel there is no boundary; every value of x works, including positive ones.
• D: This multiplies 2 by 3x to get 5x instead of 6x, so the x terms fail to cancel and a false boundary appears.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 20 square yards. Floor area: 15 times 12 is 180 square feet. One square yard is 3 ft by 3 ft, or 9 square feet, so 180 divided by 9 is 20 square yards.

• A (correct): 180 square feet divided by 9 square feet per square yard gives 20.
• B: This divides by 3, the linear factor; a square yard is 3 by 3, or 9 square feet.
• C: This is the area in square feet with no conversion to square yards.
• D: This multiplies by 3 instead of dividing; square yards are larger units, so the number must get smaller.

Answer: A

Correct answer:

·x + 5. Parallel lines have equal slopes and different y-intercepts. Keep

and use b = 5.

• A (correct): Parallel lines share the slope 2/3, and the new intercept is 5.
• B: This uses the negative reciprocal slope, which makes the roads perpendicular, not parallel.
• C: This flips the fraction; parallel lines keep exactly the same slope.
• D: This changes the sign of the slope, so the new road would fall while the old one rises.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 50. Each turn moves the bicycle one circumference: πd = 28π inches. Turns = distance divided by circumference.

• A: This uses 2π times 28 = 56π per turn, treating the diameter as the radius.
• B: This uses 14π per turn, multiplying π by the radius instead of the diameter.
• C: This divides 50 by π again; the π in the distance and the circumference already cancel.
• D (correct): One turn is 28π inches, and 1400π divided by 28π is 50.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 4,059. Apply both tests to each number. For 4,059 the digit sum is

divisible by 3, and the alternating sum

means it is divisible by 11.

Check:

• A: It passes the test for 11 (5 − 3 + 0 − 2 = 0), but its digit sum of 10 is not a multiple of 3.
• B: Its digit sum of 12 passes the test for 3, but 4 − 2 + 5 − 1 = 6 fails the test for 11.
• C: It passes the test for 11 (6 − 1 + 8 − 2 = 11), but its digit sum of 17 is not a multiple of 3.
• D (correct): Its digit sum is 18, a multiple of 3, and 4 − 0 + 5 − 9 = 0, so it passes the test for 11.

Answer: D

Correct answer: a = 6 and b = 15. For infinitely many solutions the second equation must be a constant multiple of the first. The y-coefficient goes from −6 to −9, a factor of 1.5. So

making the two equations describe the same line.

• A: Scaling the x-term but not the constant gives parallel lines (same slope, different line), which means no solution.
• B: Copying the first equation's numbers ignores that the y-coefficient changed from −6 to −9, so the slopes would differ and there would be one solution.
• C: This matches the x-coefficient but uses the y-coefficient size as the constant; 10 times 1.5 is 15, so the lines would be parallel.
• D (correct): Multiplying every term of 4x − 6y = 10 by 1.5 gives 6x − 9y = 15, the same line.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 175 square inches. The scale factor is

Areas of similar triangles scale by

so the larger area is

• A: This multiplies by k = 2.5, but area depends on two lengths and scales by $k^2$.
• B (correct): Area scales by $2.5^2=6.25$, and 28 × 6.25 = 175.
• C: This multiplies by 6/15, shrinking the area instead of enlarging it.
• D: This multiplies by $(6/15{)}^2$, using the scale factor upside down.

Answer: B

Correct answer: x = 23. Cross-multiply, keeping each numerator in parentheses:

Distribute:

Subtract 5x and add 3: x = 23.

Check:

• A: This comes from dropping the parentheses, writing 6x − 1 = 5x + 4, so only the x terms were multiplied.
• B (correct): Cross-multiplying gives 3(2x − 1) = 5(x + 4), so 6x − 3 = 5x + 20 and x = 23.
• C: This multiplies each numerator by its own denominator, 5(2x − 1) = 3(x + 4), instead of by the other denominator.
• D: This comes from multiplying the left numerator fully but writing 5(x + 4) as 5x + 4.

Answer: A

Correct answer: A diode rectifier. Every rotating coil naturally makes AC. A modern alternator lets the machine produce AC and then passes it through a set of diodes, called a rectifier, which allows current in only one direction and delivers DC to the battery.

• A (correct): Diodes let current pass in only one direction, turning the alternator's AC into DC for the battery.
• B: A transformer changes AC voltage levels but its output is still AC; it cannot make DC.
• C: An inverter does the opposite job, turning DC into AC.
• D: Slip rings pass the coil's output to the circuit unchanged, so the output stays AC.

Answer: C

Correct answer: In parallel, across the two ends of the resistor. A voltmeter measures the potential difference between two points, so it is connected in parallel, across the component. Its very high resistance lets it do this while drawing almost no current.

• A: Series connection is for an ammeter measuring current; a high-resistance voltmeter in series would nearly stop the current.
• B: A voltmeter needs two points to compare; one lead alone measures no potential difference.
• C (correct): Voltage is a difference between two points, so the meter's leads go on either side of the resistor.
• D: This is again a series connection, which suits current measurement, not voltage across a part.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 10 ms. Period and frequency are reciprocals:

s = 0.01 s, which is 10 ms.

• A: This multiplies by a thousand instead of taking the reciprocal; 100 ms would be the period of a 10 Hz wave.
• B: This is the period of a 1 kHz wave, ten times faster than 100 Hz.
• C: This is only the half-cycle time, the time between one reversal and the next.
• D (correct): The period is the reciprocal of frequency: 1/100 s = 0.01 s = 10 ms.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 188 Ω. In series,

Four equal 47 Ω parts give

larger than any single resistor.

• A (correct): Series resistances add: 47 times 4 is 188 Ω.
• B: This divides by 4, which is the rule for equal resistors in parallel, not series.
• C: This treats the string as one resistor, but each one adds its own resistance.
• D: This adds the number of resistors to one value instead of adding all four values.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 200 W. For fixed power,

so tripling V makes the current one third as large. Line loss is $I^{2}R$, so it becomes

of its old value:

• A: This reduces the loss in step with the current, but loss depends on current squared.
• B: Higher voltage lowers the current for the same delivered power, so loss falls rather than rises.
• C (correct): Tripling the voltage cuts current to one third, and $I^{2}R$ loss falls to one ninth: 1800/9 = 200 W.
• D: The line resistance is unchanged, but the current is not; lower current means less heat.

Answer: B

Correct answer: It is nonohmic, because its resistance rises as the voltage increases. Divide V by I for each row:

2/0.15 ≈ 13.3 Ω, and

Because the ratio is not constant, the part is nonohmic, and its resistance rises with voltage, the way a lamp filament behaves as it heats.

• A: Only the first reading gives 10 Ω; the V/I ratio grows at higher voltages, so R is not constant.
• B (correct): V/I goes from 10 Ω to about 13.3 Ω to 20 Ω, so the resistance climbs with voltage.
• C: The current grows more slowly than the voltage, so V/I increases rather than decreases.
• D: Rising current alone is not enough; an ohmic part needs current exactly proportional to voltage.

Answer: A

In a controlled experiment, change only the factor under study. Resistance also depends on material, cross-sectional area and temperature, so those must stay the same while only the length is varied. A small test current helps keep the temperature steady.

• A (correct): Holding every other factor constant lets any change in resistance be credited to length alone.
• B: Changing the material also changes resistivity, so the effect of length cannot be separated out.
• C: Changing both length and diameter at once mixes two effects, so neither can be identified.
• D: A large current heats the wire and changes its resistance during the test; a small current is better.

Answer: D

Correct answer: About 600 A. Ohm's law gives

Even a low-voltage battery can drive a huge short-circuit current, which can heat a tool or ring red-hot and cause severe burns.

• A: 2 A is the lamp's normal current; the wrench is a far lower resistance than the lamp.
• B: This multiplies voltage by resistance instead of dividing.
• C: This computes $V^2/R$, which is power in watts, not current.
• D (correct): $I=V/R=12/0.02=600$ A, hundreds of times the lamp's normal 2 A.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 4 A. For two branches,

For the 12 Ω branch:

Check: the 4 Ω branch carries 12 A, and both branches have 48 V across them.

• A: This is the current in the 4 Ω branch; the larger resistor carries the smaller current.
• B: This splits the current equally, which only happens when the branches are equal.
• C: This gives one branch the full source current, but the current divides among parallel paths.
• D (correct): The 12 Ω branch takes 4/16 of the total, since its share is the other resistance over the sum.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 9.6 Ω. Convert 1.5 kW to 1,500 W. From

Check: the current is

• A (correct): Rearranging $P=V^2/R$ gives R = 14,400 divided by 1,500, or 9.6 Ω.
• B: This is 1,500 divided by 120, which is the current in amperes, not a resistance.
• C: This divides the voltage by the power, which does not give ohms.
• D: This divides the power by the voltage squared, which is the formula turned upside down.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 20 Ω. For two resistors,

The result is below the smaller resistor, 30 Ω, as it must be.

• A: This adds the resistors as if they were in series.
• B (correct): Product over sum gives 1,800 divided by 90, or 20 Ω.
• C: This averages the two values, which is not how parallel resistors combine.
• D: This adds the reciprocals but forgets the final flip, leaving siemens instead of ohms.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 200. The emitter carries both currents,

mA.

• A: This divides the emitter current by the base current; beta uses the collector current, which is the emitter current minus the base current.
• B: This divides the base current by the collector current, which turns the ratio upside down.
• C (correct): The collector current is 50.25 − 0.25 = 50 mA, and beta = 50 mA ÷ 0.25 mA = 200.
• D: This divides the emitter current by the collector current, which is not the definition of beta.

Answer: B

Correct answer: About 1 s, settling at 3 A. The time constant is

and the current is essentially complete after about five time constants,

Once steady, the coil acts like a plain resistance, so

• A: 0.2 s is only one time constant, when the current has reached about 63 percent of its final value.
• B (correct): $\tau =2.4/12=0.2$ s, about five time constants is 1 s, and the final current is 36/12 = 3 A.
• C: 1.9 A is about 63 percent of the final value, the current after one time constant, not the steady current.
• D: This inverts the time constant to R/L = 5 and multiplies by five; the time constant is L divided by R.

Answer: A

Correct answer: +3 nC each. Charge is conserved, so first find the total, keeping the signs: +8 nC + (−2) nC = +6 nC. Touching only moves electrons between the spheres, and identical spheres split the total evenly: 6 divided by 2 is +3 nC each. Check:

nC, the same total as before.

• A (correct): The total is +8 + (−2) = +6 nC, and splitting it equally gives +3 nC on each sphere.
• B: This adds the sizes 8 and 2 while ignoring the minus sign, which would create charge that was never there.
• C: This just halves each starting charge, so the spheres would still differ; touching makes them share one total.
• D: The charges do not cancel completely because they are unequal; conservation leaves a net +6 nC to share.

Answer: A

Correct answer: A Zener diode, deliberately reverse-biased to hold a set reference voltage. A bar with bent tips, like a stretched Z, identifies a Zener diode. The triangle points from anode to cathode, so with the bar at the positive line the diode is reverse-biased. Zeners are designed to work this way, conducting in reverse at a set voltage to act as a reference.

• A (correct): The bent-tipped bar marks a Zener, which is designed to conduct in reverse at a set voltage, so placing its cathode toward positive is the intended use.
• B: An LED is marked by outward arrows, and with the cathode toward positive this diode is reverse-biased, not forward-biased.
• C: A Schottky bar has S-shaped hooks, and this diode's orientation puts it in reverse bias.
• D: The bent tips identify a special Zener variant, for which reverse connection is the normal working arrangement.

Answer: A

Correct answer: The piston briefly stops there before reversing direction. At top dead center and bottom dead center the piston comes to a momentary stop and reverses direction. That instant of zero piston motion is why both points are called dead centers.

• A (correct): At TDC and BDC the piston's motion drops to zero for a moment as it changes from moving one way to the other.
• B: The name refers to the piston's motion, and burning actually starts near TDC at the end of compression.
• C: Valve status at TDC and BDC depends on the stroke; the name comes from the piston stopping, not from the valves.
• D: The crankshaft keeps rotating smoothly; only the piston pauses as it reverses.

Answer: A

Correct answer: Only to reach a repair shop, staying under the speed limit printed on it. A compact temporary spare is smaller and lighter than a regular tire and usually has its own pressure and a printed speed limit, commonly 50 mph. It is meant only to reach a place where the regular tire can be repaired or replaced.

• A (correct): Compact spares are short-term tires, often limited to about 50 mph, meant only to get to a shop.
• B: A temporary spare is not built for regular use and should be replaced as soon as possible.
• C: The printed speed limit applies no matter how much tread the spare has.
• D: Compact spares often need a different, higher pressure printed on the spare or label.

Answer: A

Correct answer: An automated manual transmission. The clues are one friction clutch, actuators doing the clutch and shift work, and a manual-style gearbox with no torque converter. That combination is an automated manual.

• A (correct): An automated manual uses one clutch and actuators to shift a manual-type gearbox.
• B: A dual-clutch unit uses two clutches, one for odd gears and one for even gears.
• C: A CVT uses a belt or chain on variable pulleys and has no gear steps.
• D: A conventional automatic uses a torque converter and planetary gearsets.

Answer: B

Correct answer: This can be normal for smart charging, so compare with the maker's specification. On smart-charging vehicles, the engine computer sets the alternator's target and may let voltage fall while cruising and rise during braking. The right reading depends on the vehicle, so check the maker's specification and avoid answers that claim a reading 'proves' a fault.

• A: A single low reading does not prove failure, especially when the computer varies the target on purpose.
• B (correct): The engine computer may lower voltage to save fuel and raise it during braking, so a fixed rule of thumb can mislead.
• C: Raising voltage during braking is a typical smart-charging strategy, not proof that the regulator is overcharging.
• D: Charging voltage changes with temperature, load and battery condition on modern cars, so a change while driving does not mean the battery is bad.

Answer: C

Correct answer: To hold oil in the filter after shutdown so pressure builds faster at startup. When the engine stops, oil could drain out of the filter back toward the sump. The anti-drainback valve keeps the filter full, so the pump does not have to refill it before pressure builds at the next start.

• A: That describes the bypass valve, a different feature that lets oil around a blocked element.
• B: Capping oil pressure is the job of the pressure relief valve in or near the pump.
• C (correct): Keeping the filter full means oil reaches the galleries sooner on the next start.
• D: Coolant is kept out by gaskets and walls, not by a filter valve.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 20 cm². Find the line pressure:

N ÷ 2.5 cm² = 100 N/cm². The same pressure acts on the caliper piston, so

eight times the master area for eight times the force.

• A: This is only the force ratio, 2,000 ÷ 250; it must still be multiplied by the 2.5 cm² master area.
• B (correct): Pressure is 250 ÷ 2.5 = 100 N/cm², so the needed area is 2,000 ÷ 100 = 20 cm².
• C: This divides 2,000 by 250 x 2.5, multiplying force by area instead of finding pressure as force divided by area.
• D: This squares the force ratio as if it were a diameter ratio; force scales directly with area.

Answer: A

Correct answer: The freeze-frame data saved with the code. When a code sets, the computer saves a freeze-frame snapshot that includes coolant temperature, engine speed, vehicle speed and load. Reading it shows whether the fault happened cold or warm, which is why it should be recorded before codes are cleared.

• A (correct): Freeze-frame data record values such as coolant temperature, rpm and vehicle speed at the moment the code set.
• B: Readiness monitors show whether self-tests have run, not the conditions when a fault occurred.
• C: Recall status is a separate clue and records nothing about this particular fault event.
• D: A maintenance reminder tracks time or mileage for service, not engine conditions.

Answer: D

Correct answer: A low fluid level letting the pump draw in air. In a hydraulic system, low fluid lets the pump pull in air. Air in the fluid makes it foam, the pump whines, and assist becomes jerky. The repair starts with finding the leak and refilling with the fluid type the maker specifies.

• A: A worn tie rod end adds free play and wander, but it cannot cause pump whine or foamy fluid.
• B: Front wheel imbalance causes a shake at certain road speeds, not changes in the hydraulic fluid.
• C: Camber affects tire wear and wheel tilt, not the condition of the power-steering fluid.
• D (correct): Low fluid lets air enter the pump, which causes whining, foamy fluid and uneven assist.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 5 kg. Find the temperature change first:

• A: This is 252 ÷ 4.2; the temperature change was never used.
• B (correct): ΔT = 90 − 78 = 12°C, so m = 252 ÷ (4.2 × 12) = 252 ÷ 50.4 = 5 kg.
• C: This uses the final temperature of 90°C instead of the change of 12°C.
• D: This divides 4.2 × 12 by 252, which inverts the rearranged formula.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 30 g. An AFR of 12:1 means 12 g of air for every 1 g of fuel, so the mixture has

equal mass parts.

Check: the air is 360 g, and 360 divided by 30 is 12.

• A: This divides the total by 12, treating the whole mixture as if it were the air; air and fuel together make 13 equal parts.
• B (correct): At 12:1 the mixture is 12 parts air plus 1 part fuel, or 13 parts; 390 divided by 13 gives 30 g of fuel.
• C: 360 g is the air in the mixture, not the fuel.
• D: This divides 390 by 11, subtracting the fuel part from 12 instead of adding it; the mixture has 12 + 1 = 13 parts.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Away from the handle, so the saw cuts on the push stroke. A hacksaw blade is installed with its teeth pointing away from the handle. The saw then cuts on the push stroke, and the blade should be tensioned as directed.

• A: Reversing the blade makes it cut on the pull stroke, which is not how a hacksaw is designed to work.
• B: The teeth are angled to cut in one direction; installing them backward reduces cutting and control.
• C: Hacksaw teeth face the work along the blade, not toward the frame.
• D (correct): A hacksaw is designed to cut on the forward stroke, so the teeth face away from the handle.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Brass. Ferrous metals have iron as their main ingredient, which includes cast iron and every kind of steel. Brass is a copper alloy, so it is nonferrous.

• A: Cast iron is mostly iron with 2 to 4 percent carbon, so it is ferrous.
• B: Stainless steel is iron-based with added chromium, so it is ferrous even when it is not magnetic.
• C: Tool steel is an iron-carbon alloy, so it belongs to the ferrous family.
• D (correct): Brass is copper plus zinc and contains little or no iron, so it is nonferrous.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Porosity. Trapped gas pockets are porosity. Contamination such as oil, moisture or rust and poor shielding are typical contributors, and adding more heat does not reliably cure it.

• A: Undercut is a groove melted into the base metal along the weld toe, not internal gas holes.
• B: Incomplete fusion means weld and base metal failed to bond in some region; it is not described by gas bubbles.
• C: The heat-affected zone is base metal changed by heat; it is a region, not a gas-void defect.
• D (correct): Porosity is the term for trapped gas voids in a weld.

Answer: B

Correct answer: A bevel angle. A miter is an angle measured across the board's face relative to a square crosscut, while a bevel tilts the blade so the cut slants through the thickness. A compound cut combines both, so always identify which angle a question describes.

• A: A miter swings the cut across the board in the horizontal plane; the blade stays perpendicular to the face.
• B (correct): Tilting the blade relative to the face of the material is the bevel setting.
• C: Ripping describes cutting along the grain, not tilting the blade.
• D: A dado is a groove across a board's face, not an angle setting on a miter saw.

Answer: A

Correct answer: When the plug stays under the technician's exclusive control during the work. OSHA allows unplugging as energy control for cord-and-plug-connected equipment only when unplugging removes the risk of unexpected startup and the servicing worker keeps exclusive control of the plug, for example by keeping it in hand or in view. This exception does not extend to large or hard-wired machines or to equipment with retained energy.

• A (correct): The exception applies only if unplugging controls unexpected startup and the plug remains in the servicing worker's exclusive control.
• B: A tag only warns; if the plug lies where others can reach it, someone could plug it back in.
• C: Turning off the switch does not disconnect the power source, and the switch could be bumped back on.
• D: Unplugging alone is not enough if other people can reconnect the plug in a shared area.

Answer: A

Correct answer: The M12 x 1.25 bolt has finer, more closely spaced threads. Both have a 12-mm nominal major diameter, but the second number is the pitch in millimeters. The 1.25-mm pitch places the threads closer together, so it is the finer thread, and a nut made for one will not properly fit the other.

• A (correct): Its 1.25-mm crest-to-crest distance is smaller than 1.75 mm, which makes it the finer thread.
• B: A larger pitch means threads are farther apart, so there are fewer per millimeter.
• C: Matching diameter is not enough; the pitches differ, so one nut cannot properly mate with both.
• D: Fine thread alone does not make a fastener stronger; material, grade and joint design decide strength.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 30.2 m/min. Edge speed equals pi times diameter times RPM:

/min.

Divide by 1,000 to convert to meters: about 30.2 m/min.

• A: This is the speed in millimeters per minute mislabeled as meters; divide by 1,000.
• B (correct): Circumference is about 50.27 mm; times 600 RPM is about 30,159 mm/min, or 30.2 m/min.
• C: This uses the 8 mm radius in place of the diameter in the pi x D formula.
• D: This multiplies diameter by RPM but leaves out pi, so it is not the circumference.

Answer: A

Correct answer: Turned down to its lowest setting. A click-type wrench uses an internal spring to set the release point. Storing it at its lowest setting keeps the spring relaxed so the wrench holds its calibration.

• A (correct): Backing the setting off relieves the internal spring so it does not weaken and lose calibration.
• B: Keeping the spring compressed for long periods can weaken it and throw readings off.
• C: Maximum setting compresses the spring the most, which is the worst condition for storage.
• D: A torque wrench is a measuring tool and should not be used to break loose stuck fasteners.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 0.09 mm. First find the diametral clearance:

When the shaft is centered, that gap is split equally on opposite sides, so the radial clearance is

• A: This is the diametral clearance; the question asks for the gap on one side only.
• B: This doubles the diametral clearance instead of halving it.
• C (correct): The 0.18-mm diametral clearance is shared by both sides of a centered shaft, leaving 0.09 mm on each side.
• D: This halves the clearance twice, as if the radial gap were a quarter of the diametral one.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 34 mm. Leftover = stock - (pieces x length) - (cuts x kerf).

• A: This subtracts only the parts and ignores the 21 mm lost to the saw cuts.
• B: This counts kerf for only six cuts, but the problem states seven.
• C: This uses 6 mm per cut, double the stated 3 mm kerf.
• D (correct): 7 x 135 = 945 mm of parts and 7 x 3 = 21 mm of kerf; 1,000 - 945 - 21 = 34 mm.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 120 kg. Mass is the amount of matter in an object and does not change with location. The crate's weight drops to about one-sixth on the Moon, but its mass stays 120 kg.

• A: This divides by six as if mass changed; it is the weight that becomes about one-sixth as large.
• B: This multiplies by six; neither mass nor weight increases on the Moon.
• C (correct): Mass does not depend on location; only the weight changes with the local gravity.
• D: This is roughly the crate's weight on Earth in newtons, which is a force, not a mass.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 18 N. Convert first: 3 cm = 0.03 m. Then

• A: This multiplies 600 by 3 without converting centimeters to meters, making the answer 100 times too large.
• B: This divides k by the deflection; Hooke's law multiplies stiffness by deflection.
• C: This takes half of kx, which belongs in the energy formula, not the force formula.
• D (correct): Converting 3 cm to 0.03 m and multiplying by 600 N/m gives 18 N.

Answer: C

Correct answer: To increase friction so the hand grips without slipping. Roughening a surface, as with knurling, sandpaper or textured flooring, usually raises the friction coefficient. A higher coefficient lets static friction hold the tool in the hand with less squeezing.

• A: Smooth, polished or lubricated surfaces lower friction; a cut texture does the opposite.
• B: The normal force comes from how hard you squeeze, not from the surface pattern.
• C (correct): Roughening a surface raises the friction coefficient, giving the hand more grip.
• D: The texture is there for grip; the handle is not meant to move against the hand at all.

Answer: B

Correct answer: It reflects radiated body heat back and emits little heat itself. Dark, dull surfaces absorb and emit radiation well, while shiny surfaces reflect it and emit poorly. The metal coating reflects infrared radiation from the body back toward it and radiates little energy outward.

• A: Fast conduction would carry heat away from the body, the opposite of what the blanket is for.
• B (correct): Shiny, light surfaces reflect most radiation and are poor emitters, so body heat is held in.
• C: Shiny surfaces reflect radiation rather than absorb it, and no phase change takes place.
• D: Speeding up convection would remove heat faster; the coating is meant to reduce heat loss.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 165 rpm. A chain gives positive transmission, so the same number of teeth pass each sprocket:

The smaller sprocket turns faster.

• A (correct): Matching teeth passed: 60 × 44 ÷ 16 = 165 rpm.
• B: This flips the ratio; the smaller rear sprocket must turn faster than the pedals, not slower.
• C: Sprockets with different tooth counts turn at different speeds; only the chain speed is shared.
• D: This multiplies by 44 but never divides by the 16 teeth on the rear sprocket.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 60 N. Weight:

Buoyant force:

The diver must supply the apparent weight:

• A (correct): The stone weighs 90 N and the water pushes up with 30 N, so the diver supplies the remaining 60 N.
• B: This is the stone's full weight in air; it ignores the buoyant force the water provides.
• C: This is the buoyant force itself, not the extra force the diver must add.
• D: This adds the buoyant force to the weight, but buoyancy pushes up and helps the diver.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 0.75 L. Displacement is

• A: This divides 750 cubic centimeters by 100 instead of 1,000 when converting to liters.
• B (correct): Volume is area times stroke: 30 times 25 = 750 cubic centimeters, which is 0.75 L.
• C: This divides 750 cubic centimeters by 10,000; one liter is 1,000 cubic centimeters.
• D: This divides the area by the stroke; displacement is area multiplied by stroke length.

Answer: D

Correct answer: The load between the fulcrum and the effort. When the load sits between the fulcrum and the effort, the effort is always the farthest point from the fulcrum. Its arm is therefore always longer than the load arm, so the ideal mechanical advantage is always above 1. That is a second-class lever.

• A: A first-class lever gains force only if the effort side is longer; with the fulcrum near the effort, it needs more effort than the load.
• B: This third-class order always makes the effort arm shorter, so the effort is always larger than the load.
• C: Equal arms give a mechanical advantage of exactly 1, so the effort equals the load rather than being less.
• D (correct): This second-class order always gives a longer effort arm, so the ideal effort is always less than the load.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 30 percent. A watt is one joule per second, so each second the generator delivers 2,400 J of useful energy from 8,000 J of fuel energy.

• A: This is the share of the input lost as waste heat, not the useful share.
• B (correct): Efficiency is useful output over input: 2,400 J ÷ 8,000 J = 0.30, or 30 percent.
• C: This divides input by output; an efficiency above 100 percent signals the ratio is upside down.
• D: This misplaces the decimal when changing 0.30 into a percent.

Answer: C

Correct answer: About 9.4 m/s. Convert to revolutions per second:

rev/s. Surface speed is

A mating gear shares this same speed at the contact point.

• A: This uses 900 rpm directly without converting minutes to seconds.
• B: This uses the radius, 0.10 m, in place of the diameter in v = π d n.
• C (correct): With speed in revolutions per second, π × 0.20 × 15 ≈ 9.4 m/s.
• D: This leaves out π; each turn carries a pitch-circle point a full circumference, π d.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 240 J. Work is the area under a force-distance graph.

Triangle:

Rectangle:

Total work =

• A: This uses the full 60 N for all 5 m, ignoring that the force was smaller during the first 2 m.
• B: This counts only the flat part of the graph and leaves out the sloped first 2 m.
• C (correct): The triangle gives 60 J and the rectangle gives 180 J, for 240 J in all.
• D: This takes half of 60 N times the whole 5 m, treating the entire graph as a triangle.

Answer: A

Correct answer: About 3,140 N. Find the IMA, scale it by the efficiency to get the AMA, then multiply by the effort.

Output force

• A (correct): IMA is $2\pi (0.15)/0.003\approx 314$, AMA is 25 percent of that, about 78.5, and 40 times 78.5 is about 3,140 N.
• B: This is the ideal output, 40 times 314; it ignores that only 25 percent of the ideal advantage is realized.
• C: This divides by the efficiency instead of multiplying, giving more than the ideal output, which is impossible.
• D: This leaves $2\pi$ out of the effort distance, using the radius instead of the circumference of the handle circle.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 1,300 N. Ideal tension is

N throughout the rope. The upper block is pulled down by the four supporting segments and the hauling line, five segments in all, plus its own weight.

Check from outside: the load (1,000 N), the worker's pull (250 N) and the block (50 N) also total 1,300 N.

• A (correct): Each segment carries 1,000/4 = 250 N; five segments pull down on the upper block (four supporting plus the hauling line), giving 1,250 N, plus the 50 N block.
• B: This counts only the load; the worker's downward pull on the hauling line and the block's own weight also hang on the hook.
• C: This adds the block weight to the load but leaves out the 250 N downward pull of the hauling line.
• D: This correctly counts five segments at 250 N but forgets the 50 N weight of the upper block, which the hook also carries.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 75 N, moving the handle 48 cm. Load =

IMA =

so the ideal effort is

Friction raises the effort:

Handle travel is set by geometry, not friction: 6 cm × 8 = 48 cm.

• A: This is the ideal effort; a 75 percent efficient lever needs more effort than the ideal value.
• B: The effort is right, but efficiency does not change the travel; the arm ratio alone sets it at 48 cm.
• C (correct): Ideal effort 56.25 N divided by 0.75 gives 75 N, and the 8:1 arm ratio makes the handle travel 8 × 6 = 48 cm.
• D: This multiplies by the efficiency instead of dividing and also shrinks the travel; losses raise the effort.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 3 s. The ground is 15 m below the release point, so set the displacement to −15 m with

Rearranged:

which factors as

The positive root is t = 3 s.

• A: This is only the time to reach the top of the toss, where the velocity is momentarily zero.
• B (correct): Solving −15 = 10t − 5t² gives t² − 2t − 3 = 0, so t = 3 s.
• C: This is the time to rise and fall back to roof level; the hammer still has 15 m left to fall.
• D: This treats the hammer as simply dropped from 15 m and ignores the upward toss.

Answer: C

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a circle.

• A: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 29% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 18%.
• B: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 40% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 18%.
• C (correct): This circle is made of exactly the 2 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.
• D: This figure has 3 pieces, but the left box has 2. Every piece must be used once, and nothing may be added.

Answer: D

Check one letter at a time. Point J is at the right-angle corner of the right triangle, and point K is at the peak of the roof of the house shape. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the house shape at the middle of a wall, but point K is at the peak of the roof.
• B: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the right triangle at the middle of the longer leg, but point J is at the right-angle corner and it meets the house shape at a bottom corner, but point K is at the peak of the roof.
• C: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the house shape at the middle of the bottom side, but point K is at the peak of the roof.
• D (correct): The line joins the right-angle corner of the right triangle to the peak of the roof of the house shape, the same spots as points J and K in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.

Answer: A

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a pentagon.

• A (correct): This pentagon is made of exactly the 2 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.
• B: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 86% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 75%.
• C: This figure has 3 pieces, but the left box has 2. Every piece must be used once, and nothing may be added.
• D: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 49% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 25%.

Answer: B

Check one letter at a time. Point K is at a corner of the rectangle, and point L is at the peak of the roof of the house shape. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the house shape at the middle of a wall, but point L is at the peak of the roof.
• B (correct): The line joins a corner of the rectangle to the peak of the roof of the house shape, the same spots as points K and L in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.
• C: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the house shape at a corner where the roof meets a wall, but point L is at the peak of the roof.
• D: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the rectangle at the middle of a long side, but point K is at a corner and it meets the house shape at a bottom corner, but point L is at the peak of the roof.

Answer: B

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a triangle.

• A: This figure has 4 pieces, but the left box has 3. Every piece must be used once, and nothing may be added.
• B (correct): This triangle is made of exactly the 3 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.
• C: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 54% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 36%.
• D: This figure is a right triangle. The pieces in the left box do not have these shapes, so they cannot fill this outline without gaps or overlaps.

Answer: B

Check one letter at a time. Point J is at a corner of the long side of the trapezoid, and point K is at a corner of the hexagon. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A: One of the shapes here is a pentagon, but the left box has a hexagon. Joining parts never changes a shape.
• B (correct): The line joins a corner of the long side of the trapezoid to a corner of the hexagon, the same spots as points J and K in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.
• C: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the hexagon at the center, but point K is at a corner.
• D: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the trapezoid at the middle of the long side, but point J is at a corner of the long side.

Answer: C

Check one letter at a time. Point E is at a corner of the pentagon, and point F is at a corner of the rectangle. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the rectangle at the middle of a short side, but point F is at a corner.
• B: One of the shapes here is a square, but the left box has a rectangle. Joining parts never changes a shape.
• C (correct): The line joins a corner of the pentagon to a corner of the rectangle, the same spots as points E and F in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.
• D: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the pentagon at the center, but point E is at a corner.

Answer: D

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a hexagon.

• A: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 25% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 16%.
• B: This figure is a pentagon. The pieces in the left box do not have these shapes, so they cannot fill this outline without gaps or overlaps.
• C: This figure has 4 pieces, but the left box has 3. Every piece must be used once, and nothing may be added.
• D (correct): This hexagon is made of exactly the 3 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.

Answer: D

Check one letter at a time. Point T is at a corner of the triangle, and point U is at the middle of a side of the square. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the square at a corner, but point U is at the middle of a side.
• B: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the triangle at the middle of a side, but point T is at a corner.
• C: One of the shapes here is a diamond, but the left box has a square. Joining parts never changes a shape.
• D (correct): The line joins a corner of the triangle to the middle of a side of the square, the same spots as points T and U in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.

Answer: B

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a rectangle.

• A: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 50% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 34%.
• B (correct): This rectangle is made of exactly the 3 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.
• C: This figure has 4 pieces, but the left box has 3. Every piece must be used once, and nothing may be added.
• D: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 23% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 32%.

Answer: B

Check one letter at a time. Point G is at the center of the parallelogram, and point H is at a corner of the flat side of the half-circle. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A: One of the shapes here is a rectangle, but the left box has a parallelogram. Joining parts never changes a shape.
• B (correct): The line joins the center of the parallelogram to a corner of the flat side of the half-circle, the same spots as points G and H in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.
• C: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the parallelogram at the middle of a long side, but point G is at the center.
• D: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the half-circle at the top of the curved side, but point H is at a corner of the flat side.

Answer: A

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a diamond.

• A (correct): This diamond is made of exactly the 4 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.
• B: This figure is a square. The pieces in the left box do not have these shapes, so they cannot fill this outline without gaps or overlaps.
• C: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 13% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 22%.
• D: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 41% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 31%.

Answer: C

Check one letter at a time. Point T is at the middle of a slanted side of the trapezoid, and point U is at the middle of a side of the triangle. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the trapezoid at a corner of the long side, but point T is at the middle of a slanted side and it meets the triangle at a corner, but point U is at the middle of a side.
• B: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the trapezoid at the middle of the short side, but point T is at the middle of a slanted side.
• C (correct): The line joins the middle of a slanted side of the trapezoid to the middle of a side of the triangle, the same spots as points T and U in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.
• D: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the triangle at the center, but point U is at the middle of a side.

Answer: B

Check one letter at a time. Point K is at a corner of the triangle, and point L is at a corner of the pentagon. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the pentagon at the center, but point L is at a corner.
• B (correct): The line joins a corner of the triangle to a corner of the pentagon, the same spots as points K and L in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.
• C: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the triangle at the middle of a side, but point K is at a corner.
• D: One of the shapes here is a hexagon, but the left box has a pentagon. Joining parts never changes a shape.

Answer: B

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a square.

• A: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 51% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 39%.
• B (correct): This square is made of exactly the 4 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.
• C: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 14% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 22%.
• D: This figure is a rectangle. The pieces in the left box do not have these shapes, so they cannot fill this outline without gaps or overlaps.