Full ASVAB Practice Form 8: Cells, Circuits and Tires

Answer: C

Correct answer: Transcription. Gene expression runs DNA to RNA to protein. The first step, making messenger RNA from DNA, is transcription; the second, building a protein from the RNA, is translation.

• A: Translation is the next step, when a ribosome reads the RNA codons and builds a chain of amino acids.
• B: Replication copies DNA into new DNA before a cell divides, not into RNA.
• C (correct): Transcription copies a gene's DNA sequence into messenger RNA, in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.
• D: Crossing over is an exchange of segments between homologous chromosomes during meiosis.

Answer: C

Correct answer: Zinc. Rust needs iron, oxygen and water. Galvanizing puts a layer of zinc over the steel, keeping oxygen and water away from the iron and slowing corrosion.

• A: Copper is used for wiring and pipes, but it is not the coating used in galvanizing.
• B: Lead is not used to galvanize steel; the process uses a different, lighter-colored metal.
• C (correct): Galvanizing means coating iron or steel with zinc, which shields it from oxygen and water.
• D: Silver is far too costly for guardrails and is not the metal used in galvanizing.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Mass. A scalar has size only, while a vector has size and direction. Displacement, acceleration and force all need a direction to be fully described; mass does not.

• A: Displacement includes the direction of the change in position, so it is a vector.
• B: Acceleration has a direction, such as toward the center of a curve, so it is a vector.
• C: A force is a push or pull in a particular direction, so it is a vector.
• D (correct): Mass is just an amount with a unit, such as 5 kg, with no direction, so it is a scalar.

Answer: C

Correct answer: The ozone layer. The ozone layer is the atmosphere's ultraviolet shield. Greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, water vapor and methane are a separate topic: they absorb the infrared radiation given off by Earth's warmed surface.

• A: Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas that absorbs outgoing infrared radiation, not most incoming ultraviolet.
• B: Water vapor mainly absorbs infrared radiation and helps the greenhouse effect.
• C (correct): The ozone layer absorbs much of the incoming ultraviolet radiation from the Sun.
• D: Methane is a greenhouse gas that traps infrared, not the main ultraviolet shield.

Answer: C

Correct answer: Radio waves are electromagnetic and can cross a vacuum, while sound needs a medium. Radio waves, like visible light, belong to the electromagnetic spectrum and can travel through a vacuum. Sound is a mechanical wave that needs a material medium, so it cannot cross the nearly empty space between galaxies.

• A: Radio waves are electromagnetic radiation, not sound; this confuses two different kinds of waves.
• B: Sound is far slower than light, and it never crosses empty space in the first place.
• C (correct): Electromagnetic waves travel through empty space, but sound requires matter to carry its vibrations.
• D: Distance is not the issue; sound cannot travel across the near-vacuum of space at any distance.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 36. Use electrons = protons − charge. Selenium has 34 protons and the charge is −2, so electrons =

The mass number 80 affects only the neutron count.

• A: This subtracts 2 from the proton count, which is what happens when an atom loses electrons to become positive.
• B: This is the electron count of a neutral selenium atom, ignoring the 2− charge.
• C: This is the number of neutrons, 80 − 34, not the number of electrons.
• D (correct): A 2− charge means two electrons were gained: 34 + 2 = 36.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 900 kcal. Secondary consumers are two feeding steps above the producers, so apply the stated 15 percent twice. Primary consumers get

kcal, and secondary consumers get

kcal.

• A: This uses the usual 10 percent rule instead of the 15 percent the model states.
• B: This is the energy at the primary consumers, only one step above the producers.
• C (correct): Two steps at 15 percent: 40,000 times 0.15 is 6,000, and 6,000 times 0.15 is 900.
• D: This applies 15 percent three times, which gives the tertiary consumers, not the secondary ones.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 15%. Percent change uses the original value as the reference.

• A: This reports the 6 L drop as a percent without dividing by the original value.
• B: This divides the 6 L drop by the new value, 34 L, instead of the original 40 L.
• C (correct): The drop is 6 L, and 6 divided by the original 40 L is 0.15, a 15% decrease.
• D: This is 34 divided by 40, the new use as a fraction of the old, not the amount of decrease.

Answer: B

Correct answer: A gas formed by the reaction escaped from the open cup into the air. Mass is conserved in a chemical reaction, so a missing mass means something crossed the boundary. The bubbles are a gas produced by the reaction, and in an open cup that gas escapes. In a sealed container, the total mass would stay the same.

• A: Ordinary reactions only rearrange atoms; they do not destroy them.
• B (correct): The fizzing released carbon dioxide gas, and its mass left the system through the open top.
• C: Ordinary chemical reactions do not convert a measurable amount of mass into energy.
• D: A change in density does not change mass; the scale measures the total amount of matter present.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Water keeps entering by osmosis, so the cell swells and may burst. Water follows solute. Because the cytoplasm has more solute than the fresh pond water, water constantly enters the protist by osmosis. The contractile vacuole normally collects and expels this extra water; without it, the cell swells and may burst.

• A: This reverses the direction; water moves toward the side with more solute, which is the inside of the cell.
• B: The pond has less solute than the cell, and in osmosis it is mainly water, not solute, that moves.
• C: The stem says the cell has more solute than the pond, so the solutions are not isotonic and water keeps entering.
• D (correct): The pond water is hypotonic to the cell, so water moves in constantly; without the vacuole pumping it out, the cell overfills.

Answer: B

Correct answer: In a fallopian tube; 46 chromosomes. Gametes are made by meiosis and carry 23 chromosomes each. Fertilization usually occurs in a fallopian tube, and joining sperm and egg gives

chromosomes in the zygote.

• A: The uterus is where the embryo implants and develops; fertilization usually happens earlier, in a fallopian tube.
• B (correct): Sperm and egg usually meet in a fallopian tube, and their 23 plus 23 chromosomes give the zygote 46.
• C: The ovary produces and releases the egg, and the zygote has 46, not the 23 of a single gamete.
• D: The site is right, but each gamete contributes 23, so the zygote has 46.

Answer: D

Correct answer: It doubles, raising the surface-area-to-volume ratio from 1:1 to 2:1. Large cube: surface area

µm² and volume

µm³, a 1:1 ratio. Each small cube has area

µm², so 8 cubes give 432 µm² for the same 216 µm³, a 2:1 ratio. This is why smaller cells exchange materials more easily.

• A: Cutting a cube exposes new faces, so surface area grows even though the total volume stays at 216 µm³.
• B: Each small cube has only one fourth of the large cube's surface area, so 8 of them give 2 times the area, not 8 times.
• C: This reverses the direction; smaller cubes have more surface relative to volume, so the ratio rises.
• D (correct): One large cube has 216 µm² of surface; eight small cubes have 8 × 54 = 432 µm², twice as much for the same 216 µm³ of volume.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 45,000 kcal. Tertiary consumers are three feeding steps above the producers. Each step down the pyramid holds 10 times as much energy, so secondary consumers had 450 kcal, primary consumers 4,500 kcal and producers 45,000 kcal.

• A (correct): Going down three steps reverses three 10 percent transfers, so multiply by 10 three times: 45 × 1,000 = 45,000.
• B: This multiplies by 10 only twice, which gives the energy at the primary consumers.
• C: This multiplies by 10 four times, counting one feeding step too many.
• D: This takes 10 percent three more times, moving up the chain instead of back down to the producers.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 7.8 g/mL, so it sinks in water. Convert to matching units: 0.39 kg = 390 g, and the volume is the rise in level, 1.25 L minus 1.20 L = 0.05 L = 50 mL.

This is much more than water's density of about 1 g/mL, so the part sinks.

• A: This uses the final water level of 1,250 mL as the part's volume instead of the 50 mL rise.
• B (correct): The mass is 390 g and the volume is 0.05 L, or 50 mL, so the density is 390 g divided by 50 mL, which is greater than water's 1 g/mL.
• C: This leaves the mass in kilograms, dividing 0.39 by 50 mL, instead of converting it to 390 g.
• D: This divides the volume by the mass, 50 by 390, which inverts the density formula.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 1,000 W. Useful output:

Input energy = useful output ÷ efficiency =

Power drawn = 30,000 J ÷ 30 s = 1,000 W.

• A: This is the useful output power (24,000 J ÷ 30 s); the motor must draw more than that because 20% is wasted.
• B (correct): The crate gains 24,000 J, so the input is 24,000 ÷ 0.80 = 30,000 J, and 30,000 J ÷ 30 s = 1,000 W.
• C: This multiplies the useful power by 0.80; efficiency means input is larger than output, so divide, not multiply.
• D: This divides by 0.80 twice; once is enough to go from 800 W of useful output to the input power.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 5 hours. Time = work / rate. The whole job is 1, so the time is

• A (correct): A rate of 1/5 of the job per hour means the whole job takes 1 divided by 1/5, or 5 hours.
• B: This treats the rate of 1/5 as 1/5 of an hour; the rate must be inverted to find the time.
• C: This halves the correct time, as if the team rate were 2/5 per hour.
• D: This counts only the 4/5 of the job left after the first hour.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 60 pounds. Weight each value by its count:

Divide by the 10 shipments: 60 pounds.

• A: 62.5 averages 50 and 75 without accounting for there being more 50-pound shipments.
• B (correct): The total weight is 300 + 300 = 600 pounds, and 600 divided by 10 is 60.
• C: 600 pounds is the total weight of all 10 shipments, not the average.
• D: This multiplies 6 by 75 and 4 by 50, matching the counts with the wrong weights.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 12.54 meters. Write 20 as 20.00 so the decimal points line up, then subtract:

About 12.5 meters of cord is left, which matches the estimate 20 - 7.5.

• A: This forgets that borrowing for the decimal places also reduces the ones digit.
• B: This subtracts only the whole numbers (20 - 7 = 13) and carries the .46 along instead of subtracting it.
• C (correct): Writing 20 as 20.00 and subtracting 7.46 gives 12.54.
• D: This adds the two lengths instead of subtracting the piece that was cut off.

Answer: D

Correct answer: $54. Tip: 20% of

Total:

(or

).

• A: This is the tip alone, not the total paid.
• B: This adds 20 dollars instead of 20% of the bill.
• C: This subtracts the tip from the bill instead of adding it.
• D (correct): The tip is 0.20 × $45 = $9, and $45 + $9 = $54.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 4 hours 45 minutes. Driving time is

which is 4 hours 15 minutes. The two breaks add 30 minutes, so the whole trip takes 4 hours 45 minutes.

• A: This is the driving time alone and leaves out both breaks.
• B (correct): Driving takes 4 hours 15 minutes, and the two breaks add 30 minutes.
• C: This adds only one 15-minute break to the driving time.
• D: This reads 4.25 hours as 4 hours 25 minutes before adding the breaks.

Answer: A

Correct answer: $19,000. The commission is the part and the sales total is the whole. Whole equals part divided by percent:

Check: 8 percent of $19,000 is $1,520.

• A (correct): Sales equal commission divided by the rate: 1,520 divided by 0.08 is 19,000.
• B: This multiplies 1,520 by 8 instead of dividing by 0.08.
• C: This finds 8 percent of the commission; the commission is the part, so you must divide by the rate.
• D: This divides by 0.8 instead of 0.08, a decimal slip; 8 percent is 0.08.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 12. Build four times the number first, then add 5:

Subtract 5 to get

then divide by 4:

Check:

• A: This comes from 4x - 5 = 53, which subtracts 5 instead of adding it.
• B (correct): Writing the sentence as 4x + 5 = 53 gives 4x = 48, so x = 12.
• C: This comes from 4(x + 5) = 53, which adds 5 before multiplying even though the words build four times the number first.
• D: This divides 53 by 4 and ignores the 5 that was added.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 12 trucks. Divide:

so 214 ÷ 18 is 11 remainder 16.

Eleven trucks are full, but the 16 remaining soldiers still need a ride, so round up to 12 trucks.

• A: 11 is the number of completely full trucks; it leaves 16 soldiers without a ride.
• B: 16 is the remainder, the number of soldiers left over, not a count of trucks.
• C (correct): 214 ÷ 18 is 11 remainder 16, and the 16 extra soldiers need one more truck, so 12 trucks are required.
• D: Only one extra truck is needed for the 16 leftover soldiers, so 13 is one truck too many.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 7.5%. Find the raise: 3,440 minus 3,200 is $240.

Divide by the original pay:

which is a 7.5 percent increase.

• A: This divides the $240 raise by $3,000 instead of by the original $3,200.
• B (correct): The raise is $240, and 240 divided by the original 3,200 is 0.075, or 7.5 percent.
• C: This treats the $240 raise as if 240 were a percent of 1,000, not of the original pay.
• D: This is the new pay as a percent of the old pay; the increase is that minus 100 percent.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 3:8. "To all the tools" signals a part-to-whole ratio. The whole is

so drills to total is 15:40. Dividing both terms by 5 gives 3:8.

• A (correct): The whole is 15 + 25 = 40 tools, and 15:40 simplifies to 3:8.
• B: This is drills to saws (15:25), a part-to-part ratio, not drills to the total.
• C: This is saws to all tools, 25:40, not drills to all tools.
• D: This is all tools to drills, the reverse of the order asked.

Answer: A

Correct answer: $44.80. Markup is based on cost, so multiply the cost by 1 plus the rate:

• A (correct): The markup is 0.60 × 28 = $16.80, and 28 + 16.80 = $44.80 (or 1.60 × 28).
• B: This is only the markup amount; it must be added to the $28 cost to get the selling price.
• C: This divides the cost by 0.60, which uses the wrong base; markup is a percent of cost, so multiply.
• D: This multiplies by 1.40, which is a 40% markup rather than the stated 60%.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 8 hours. Workers and time are not in direct proportion: fewer workers take longer. Find the total work first: 4 workers × 6 hours = 24 worker-hours.

With 3 workers, the time is

• A: This treats workers and time as directly proportional (6 × 3/4), but fewer workers need more time, not less.
• B: This assumes one fewer worker means one fewer hour, which has the relationship backward.
• C: This adds one hour per missing worker instead of finding the total work in worker-hours.
• D (correct): The job takes 4 × 6 = 24 worker-hours, and 24 ÷ 3 = 8 hours.

Answer: D

Correct answer: $680. A 25 percent discount leaves 75 percent of the original price, so

Divide:

Check: 25 percent of 680 is 170, and

• A: This adds 25 percent of the sale price to $510, but the discount was taken from the larger original price.
• B: This takes another 25 percent off the sale price, which moves in the wrong direction.
• C: This divides by 0.25, the discount, instead of by 0.75, the part of the price that remains.
• D (correct): After a 25 percent discount, 75 percent of the price remains, so 0.75x = 510 and x = $680.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 3 3/4 cups. Find the amount per person and multiply by 10, which is the same as multiplying by 10/6.

• A (correct): Scaling by 10/6: 9/4 times 10/6 = 90/24 = 15/4 = 3 3/4 cups.
• B: This scales by 6/10 instead of 10/6, which would shrink the recipe for more people.
• C: This adds 4 cups because 10 is 4 more than 6, but recipes scale by multiplying, not adding.
• D: This multiplies by 10 without dividing by 6, which is enough for 60 people.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 1:00 p.m. Head start: 9:00 to 10:30 is 1.5 hours, so the freight train leads by

Same direction, so subtract speeds:

Time to close the gap:

after 10:30 a.m., which is 1:00 p.m.

• A: The 2.5-hour chase is counted from 9:00 a.m., but the passenger train does not start until 10:30 a.m.
• B: This uses a 40-mile lead, as if the head start were 1 hour instead of 1 hour 30 minutes.
• C: This divides the 60-mile lead by the freight train's 40 mph instead of by the closing speed of 24 mph.
• D (correct): The freight train has a 60-mile lead, the gap closes at 24 mph, so the catch takes 2.5 hours after 10:30 a.m.

Answer: C

Correct answer: examine. Analyze is a verb meaning to study something by breaking it into parts and seeing how they relate. Examine is the closest synonym.

• A: Analysis is the noun for the examination; it does not fill the verb slot.
• B: Guess means decide without careful study, the opposite of going through every truck's records.
• C (correct): To analyze is to examine something closely by breaking it into parts.
• D: Ignore means pay no attention to, which is the reverse of studying closely.

Answer: D

Correct answer: pull out. Ex means out and tract means pull or draw. A dentist who extracts a tooth pulls it out.

• A: Filling repairs a tooth in place, while ex plus tract means pulling it out.
• B: Cleaning is routine care, but tract, pull, shows the tooth is being removed.
• C: This reverses both parts of the word; ex means out and tract means pull.
• D (correct): Ex means out and tract means pull, so to extract a tooth is to pull it out.

Answer: B

Correct answer: wordy. The signal word but sets up opposites. The revision was short and to the point, so the first report was the reverse: wordy.

• A: Accuracy is not contrasted with being short; the contrast is about length.
• B (correct): The word but contrasts verbose with short and to the point, so verbose means using too many words.
• C: Verbose looks like verbal, but the report was written and the clue is about length.
• D: Concise means short and to the point, which is the opposite side of the contrast.

Answer: B

Correct answer: next to. The clue, a walk of only a few steps, shows the rooms are side by side. ADJACENT means lying next to or bordering, so next to is the match.

• A: Far from is the opposite of adjacent and contradicts a walk of a few steps.
• B (correct): Next to is the exact meaning: the two rooms border each other.
• C: Similar to means alike, which is a different relationship from being side by side.
• D: Size is not mentioned; the clue is about how close the rooms are.

Answer: C

Correct answer: imprecise. Vague describes something stated without clear detail. Substitute: 'the mechanic gave only an imprecise estimate' keeps the meaning, while hurried and costly add different facts and detailed reverses it.

• A: This is the opposite; a detailed estimate would spell things out clearly.
• B: Cost is a topic that goes with repair estimates, but it does not describe how clear the estimate was.
• C (correct): Vague means not clearly stated or not specific, which is what imprecise says about the estimate.
• D: A rushed answer might also be vague, but hurried describes speed, not lack of clarity.

Answer: A

Correct answer: determination. After "her," RESOLVE is a noun, and "never weakened" after failures describes willpower. Resolve here means determination.

• A (correct): As a noun, resolve means firm purpose, and "her determination never weakened" fits.
• B: Resolve as a verb can mean to solve a problem, but here it is a noun after "her" describing her attitude.
• C: Doubt is nearly the opposite; the sentence stresses that her will stayed strong.
• D: A training schedule might plan for the test, but a schedule does not weaken after failed attempts.

Answer: A

Correct answer: Stopped on the way. Inter- means between, and the base -cept means to take or seize. Seizing the drone between its launch point and the base means stopping it on the way.

• A (correct): Inter- means between, so to intercept is to catch or stop something between its start and its target.
• B: Launching sends the drone out, which is the action of the enemy, not the defenders.
• C: Following from behind keeps the drone moving, but the crews kept it from reaching the base.
• D: Repaired has no link to inter- or to stopping an attack.

Answer: A

Correct answer: calling. Voc means voice or call. A vocation is a calling, meaning work a person feels drawn to, such as serving as a medic.

• A (correct): Voc means call, and a vocation is work a person feels called to do.
• B: This mixes up vocation with the look-alike vacation, which is time off.
• C: Voc does mean voice, but the sentence is about his work, so the literal reading misses.
• D: Location is not part of the word; the sentence describes a career.

Answer: A

Correct answer: unhurried. Leisure is a noun, and -ly on a noun often forms an adjective, as in costly or friendly. Leisurely describes the walk, so the answer must be an adjective. Unhurried matches.

• A (correct): Leisurely ends in -ly but describes the noun walk, so it is an adjective meaning relaxed and unhurried.
• B: Very quickly is an adverb phrase meaning fast, which is wrong in both word class and meaning.
• C: Leisure is the noun base meaning free time; it cannot describe the walk.
• D: Lazily is an adverb, and laziness is an unwillingness to work, not a relaxed pace.

Answer: D

Correct answer: hold onto. HARBOR is a verb whose object is "doubts," and "continued to" plus "said nothing" show he kept them to himself. Harbor here means hold onto.

• A: A harbor is a sheltered port for ships, a noun sense; here harbor is a verb with the object "doubts."
• B: Expressing doubts openly is the opposite here, since he said nothing; harbor means keep inside.
• C: Dismissing doubts would end them, but "continued to" shows he kept them.
• D (correct): To harbor a feeling is to keep it privately, which matches "continued to" and saying nothing.

Answer: C

Correct answer: suggest without saying. The supervisor communicates a view through behavior, never in words. Imply means to express something indirectly, so suggest without saying matches.

• A: Announce means state openly, but the supervisor never said anything.
• B: Proving with evidence adds certainty; a glance at a clock only hints at an opinion.
• C (correct): Imply means to communicate an idea indirectly, here through repeated glances rather than words.
• D: Deny means to say something is not true, which does not fit a hint that the meeting was long.

Answer: B

Correct answer: guided by lofty principles. The volunteer holds to a perfect vision even though the money cannot pay for it. That is the mark of idealistic, the opposite of pragmatic, so guided by lofty principles is the match.

• A: Practical describes pragmatic, the opposite stance: a practical planner would accept a workable compromise with the money available.
• B (correct): Idealistic describes someone driven by a vision of how things should be, even at the cost of practicality, as the volunteer is.
• C: This describes cynical; the volunteer is hopeful about what should happen, not suspicious of people's motives.
• D: Wanting homes for all is kind, but generous means giving freely of one's own resources; the sentence is about refusing to accept practical limits.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Agreed. Con- means together or with, and the base cur means run. Two inspectors whose findings run together reached the same conclusion, so concurred means agreed. Concurrent shares the parts but is about timing, which does not fit an opinion.

• A: Disagreed contradicts the clue that both reached the same verdict.
• B: Competed implies working against each other, but con- signals joining together.
• C: Happened at once borrows the meaning of concurrent, a related word about timing, not opinion.
• D (correct): Con- means together, and cur comes from a word for run, so to concur is to run together in opinion, or agree.

Answer: A

Correct answer: easily affected. Sense plus -itive gives a word meaning tending to react to what it senses. The sentence confirms it: small bumps would disturb the readings. Do not confuse sensitive with sensible, which means showing good judgment.

• A (correct): Sensitive means quick to react to small changes, which is why the gauge needs padding.
• B: This is the meaning of sensible, a lookalike word, not of sensitive.
• C: A sensitive gauge may be costly, but the sentence is about how easily it reacts, not its price.
• D: Sturdy and tough mean strong and hard to damage, the opposite of what the foam padding suggests.

Answer: B

Correct answer: lessen. Mitigate means to make something less harsh or severe. The phrase 'until help arrived' shows the pain was only eased, so lessen fits; cure claims a complete result, diagnose is a related medical step, and increase is the opposite.

• A: A cure ends the problem completely, which overstates mitigate; the pain is eased, not removed.
• B (correct): Mitigate means to make something less severe, so lessen is the best match.
• C: Diagnosing identifies the cause of a problem; it does not reduce the pain.
• D: This is the opposite of making pain less severe.

Answer: D

Correct answer: open to more than one meaning. The sentence right after the target word restates it: some workers read the note one way and others read it another way. Instructions that can be understood in two ways are open to more than one meaning, so that is what ambiguous means here.

• A: Nothing about the tone of the note is criticized; the trouble was that people understood it differently.
• B: The note is one short sentence, so length was not the problem.
• C: The passage describes confusion over what the note meant, not how firmly it was enforced.
• D (correct): The next sentence shows workers read the note in two different ways, which is what ambiguous means.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Waiting times at the dock became much shorter after the change. The passage describes the change only in words: waiting times "dropped sharply." Any choice that supplies a number, such as "in half" or "20 minutes," adds precision the passage never provides, so the best answer keeps the description general.

• A: "Dropped sharply" gives no number, so "exactly in half" invents precision the passage lacks.
• B (correct): The newsletter says waiting times "dropped sharply," which this choice restates without adding any figures.
• C: No time figure appears anywhere in the passage; the 20 minutes is made up.
• D: Ticket sales are never mentioned, and "doubled" is an invented number.

Answer: D

Stick to the reasons the passage actually gives. It reports that the chief wants the rule because furniture burns faster and sprinklers buy escape time. Answers that add secret motives, personal dislike or a vote that never happened go beyond the text.

• A: This invents a hidden motive; the passage gives only safety and cost reasons for her view.
• B: Disagreement about a policy does not show personal hostility, and the passage reports no exchange between them.
• C: The chief has only asked for the rule; nothing says the town has voted on it.
• D (correct): The passage reports her reasons directly: fast-burning furniture, little escape time and sprinklers controlling fires early.

Answer: A

Correct answer: The trip ended sooner than planned after a piece of equipment failed. A correct paraphrase uses different words but keeps the same meaning. "Ordered an early return" after the winch broke becomes "ended sooner than planned after a piece of equipment failed." Each other choice changes a fact: the amount mapped, the day of the breakdown, or the fate of the remaining work.

• A (correct): The winch broke on day eight of a planned twelve-day trip and the ship returned early, which this choice restates without changing any fact.
• B: The passage says only about two-thirds of the area was mapped.
• C: Twelve days was the planned length; the winch broke on the eighth day.
• D: The remaining work was rescheduled for next summer, not canceled permanently.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Feature by feature, giving both jobs' details on each point before moving on. Each sentence takes one feature (pay, schedule, benefits, travel) and gives both jobs' details before moving to the next feature. That is point-by-point comparison, not block order, which would describe one job completely before the other.

• A: That would be block order, but here every sentence mentions both jobs.
• B (correct): Pay, schedule, benefits and travel are each handled in turn for both jobs, which is point-by-point order.
• C: No interviews or dates are described; the sentences are organized by feature.
• D: The passage never reports a choice or presents a problem and a fix; it only sets out the comparison.

Answer: A

Correct answer: The priming and the light replacement took place during the same period. "While" signals overlapping events, so the priming and the light replacement shared a time window. The inspection came "when both crews had packed up," which puts it last, and the passage never compares how long the two jobs took.

• A (correct): "While" shows the two jobs overlapped in time rather than one following the other.
• B: "While" means the jobs overlapped, so the lighting work did not come strictly before the painting.
• C: The inspector walked through after both crews packed up, and he even tested the new lights.
• D: The passage gives no information about how long either job lasted; this invents an elapsed time.

Answer: A

Correct answer: Welding involves several hazards, and each one calls for its own form of protection. Build a one-sentence map: the passage lists hazards (light, fumes, spatter, noise) and the protection for each. The main idea must cover that whole pattern, so the answer naming several hazards and their matching protections fits, while a single example is too narrow.

• A (correct): Every sentence after the first pairs a hazard with a protective measure, so this covers the whole passage without going beyond it.
• B: This is a true detail from one sentence, but it leaves out the fumes, spatter, and noise, so it is too narrow.
• C: The passage never discusses training or says welding is too dangerous; this reaches past the text.
• D: The passage mentions synthetic fabrics only as a poor clothing choice and never ranks causes of injury.

Answer: B

Correct answer: The two hotels are equally priced for a standard room. Compare meanings, not exact wording. The passage says a standard room costs $139 at either hotel, which is the same as saying the rooms are equally priced, while parking and breakfast are real differences between the hotels.

• A: Both hotels charge $139 a night for a standard room.
• B (correct): A cost of $139 a night at either hotel means the standard rooms are priced the same, said in different words.
• C: Parking is free at the Plaza Suites but $20 a night at the Harbor Inn.
• D: Only the Harbor Inn includes breakfast; the Plaza Suites charges $12.

Answer: D

Correct answer: The author weighs the crash record against a stated drawback and concludes a four-way stop is needed. Look at how the author handles the other side. The passage gives crash numbers, grants that a four-way stop would delay trucks, and then argues the crashes outweigh the delay before recommending the change. Reaching a conclusion from evidence while acknowledging a counterpoint is reasoning, not bias.

• A: Having a conclusion is not bias; bias means hiding or distorting evidence, but this author openly states and addresses the opposing point.
• B: The final sentence uses should to recommend a four-way stop, so the author does not leave the decision to readers.
• C: The author calls the residents' point fair and answers it with the crash numbers, so dismissive goes too far.
• D (correct): The author presents the crash data, admits the delay objection is fair, and then explains why safety matters more, which is reasoning to a conclusion.

Answer: A

The passage gives two examples and then limits what they prove. A correct main idea reports the improvement and keeps the caution; choices that turn two schools into a rule for all schools, or swap attendance for grades, claim more than the examples allow.

• A (correct): This states what the two examples show and keeps the officials' warning about larger districts, so it generalizes only as far as the evidence allows.
• B: Two small schools cannot support a rule for every school, and the officials specifically cautioned against assuming the same gains elsewhere.
• C: The passage reports attendance and alertness, not grades, and guarantees is far stronger than its evidence.
• D: This is an accurate detail about one school, but it leaves out the other school and the officials' caution.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 90 degrees. A radius drawn to the point where a tangent touches the circle always meets the tangent at a right angle, 90 degrees.

• A: The radius does not cut the tangent at a slant; the angle is always a right angle.
• B: A 180-degree angle would mean the radius lies along the tangent line, which cannot happen.
• C: No angle other than 90 degrees is fixed by the tangent rule, whatever the size of the circle.
• D (correct): A tangent is always perpendicular to the radius drawn to the point of contact.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 14t - 21. The distributive property says the outside factor multiplies every term inside:

• A: This multiplies 7 by the first term only and leaves -3 unchanged.
• B (correct): Multiply 7 by both terms: 7 x 2t = 14t and 7 x (-3) = -21.
• C: This adds 7 to each number instead of multiplying.
• D: This multiplies correctly but loses the minus sign on the second term.

Answer: D

Correct answer: −54. Multiply the sizes,

then apply the sign rule: different signs give a negative product, so the change is −54 gallons.

• A: The size is right, but unlike signs give a negative product.
• B: This adds −9 and −6 instead of multiplying.
• C: This adds −9 and 6 instead of multiplying.
• D (correct): 9 × 6 = 54, and a negative times a positive is negative.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 3. Subtract 9 from both sides:

Divide by −2: x = 3. Check by substitution:

so both sides match.

• A: Substituting gives 9 − 2(−3) = 15, not 3; the sign was lost when dividing by −2.
• B: This is 9 − 3, the value of 2x, before dividing by 2; substituting gives 9 − 12 = −3.
• C (correct): Substituting gives 9 − 2(3) = 9 − 6 = 3, which matches the right side.
• D: This adds 3 to 9 instead of subtracting; substituting gives 9 − 24 = −15.

Answer: B

Correct answer: (-1, -3). Average each coordinate separately:

The midpoint is (-1, -3).

• A: This halves the differences of the coordinates, which gives half the run and rise, not the halfway point.
• B (correct): Averaging the x-values gives -1 and averaging the y-values gives -3.
• C: This adds the coordinates but forgets to divide each sum by 2.
• D: This has the right numbers in the wrong order; x must be listed first.

Answer: B

Correct answer: $2. Subtract the second purchase from the first: 2 hinges cost

so one hinge costs $3. Then

gives 2L = 4, so one latch costs $2. Check:

• A: This is the price of one hinge, found in the first step; the question asks for a latch.
• B (correct): With a hinge at $3, the second purchase gives 9 + 2L = 13, so a latch costs $2.
• C: This is the cost of 2 hinges from the subtraction step, not the price of a latch.
• D: This is the price of one hinge plus one latch together, not a latch alone.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 109 degrees. Neighboring angles of a parallelogram add to 180 degrees. Let the smaller angle be x:

so 2x = 142 and x = 71. The larger angle is

• A (correct): Neighboring angles are supplementary, so x + x + 38 = 180 gives x = 71, and the larger angle is 109 degrees.
• B: This is the smaller angle; the question asks for the larger one.
• C: This is 180 - 38, which is twice the smaller angle, not either angle of the parallelogram.
• D: This adds 38 to 90 as if the smaller angle were a right angle, which nothing in the problem says.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 105 square inches. A parallelogram's area is base times perpendicular height. The slanted side is not used.

• A: This multiplies the base by the slanted side, 9, which is not the height.
• B: This takes half of base times height, the triangle formula, but a parallelogram needs no one half.
• C (correct): Base 15 times perpendicular height 7 gives 105.
• D: This multiplies the slanted side by the height instead of using the base.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 5/4. Use the zero rule,

and the negative-exponent rule,

Add them:

which is 1.25.

• A: This treats 4^0 as 0 instead of 1.
• B (correct): 4^0 = 1 and 4^-1 = 1/4, so the sum is 1 and 1/4, or 5/4.
• C: This reads 4^-1 as -4, making the negative exponent a negative number.
• D: This ignores the negative sign in the exponent, using 4^1 = 4.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 2² × 3² × 7. Split and keep splitting until every factor is prime:

• A: The product is 252, but 21 = 3 × 7 is not prime, so the factorization is not finished.
• B: This has one 2 too many; it equals 504, not 252.
• C: This is missing a factor of 2; it equals 126, half of 252.
• D (correct): 4 × 9 × 7 = 252, and 2, 3 and 7 are all prime.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 1/27. Rewrite with a positive exponent in the denominator:

Since

the value is $\frac{1}{27}$, a small positive fraction.

• A: This treats the negative exponent as making the number negative, which it never does.
• B: This multiplies the base by the exponent, 3 times -3, instead of using repeated factors.
• C (correct): A negative exponent means the reciprocal: 1 over 3^3, which is 1/27.
• D: This takes the reciprocal but squares 3 instead of cubing it.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 201 miles. Write B < A as

Subtract 0.10m and 40: 30 < 0.15m. Divide by 0.15: m > 200. Because the sign is strict, 200 itself does not work (both cost $90), so the smallest whole number is 201.

• A: At exactly 200 miles both rentals cost $90, so B is not yet cheaper; the inequality is strict.
• B: At 199 miles B costs $89.90 and A costs $89.75, so A is still cheaper.
• C: This divides the $30 difference in fees by $0.25 instead of by the $0.15 difference in mileage rates.
• D (correct): 70 + 0.10m < 40 + 0.25m gives 30 < 0.15m, so m > 200; the smallest whole number above 200 is 201.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 125°. With parallel lines, every acute angle plus every obtuse angle totals 180°. Let the acute angle be a, so the obtuse angle is 3a - 40:

giving 4a = 220 and a = 55. The obtuse angle is

°.

• A: 55° is the acute angle; the question asks for the obtuse one.
• B (correct): The acute angle is 55°, so the obtuse angle is 3(55) - 40 = 125°, and 55 + 125 = 180.
• C: This drops the - 40 (4a = 180, a = 45, 3a = 135), ignoring part of the given relationship.
• D: This sets the two angles equal, but an acute and an obtuse angle are supplementary, not equal.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 49√3 square cm. A height drawn from one vertex splits the triangle into two 30-60-90 triangles with hypotenuse 14 and short leg 7, so the height (the long leg) is $7\sqrt{3}$.

The area is $49\sqrt{3}$ square centimeters, about 84.9.

• A (correct): Base 14 times height $7\sqrt{3}$, halved, gives $49\sqrt{3}$.
• B: This forgets the one-half in the area formula and doubles the answer.
• C: $7\sqrt{3}$ cm is the height of the triangle, not its area.
• D: This uses the 45-45-90 ratio; half an equilateral triangle is a 30-60-90 triangle, so the factor is $\sqrt{3}$.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 15. Both boundary values belong to the middle rule.

and since 5 > 2,

The sum is

• A (correct): Using the middle rule at both boundaries gives 1 + 7, and t(5) = 7, for a total of 15.
• B: This uses the first rule at x = −1, giving 0; the middle rule includes −1 because of the ≤ sign.
• C: This uses the third rule at x = 2, giving 10; the third rule applies only when x is greater than 2.
• D: This applies the outer rules at both boundary points, giving 0 + 10 + 7.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 2,500 W. The prefix kilo means one thousand, so converting kilowatts to watts means multiplying by 1,000, which moves the decimal point three places to the right. Since a watt is the smaller unit, the number in watts must be larger. Errors usually come from moving the decimal only one or two places. The same factor converts kilometers to meters or kilograms to grams, so the rule carries over across all metric units.

• A: This is too small by a factor of 10.
• B: This is too large by a factor of 10.
• C (correct): 2.5 × 1,000 = 2,500 W.
• D: This is too small by a factor of 100.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Ohmmeter. The name gives it away: ohms are the unit of resistance, just as amperes are measured by an ammeter and watts by a wattmeter. An ohmmeter works by sending a small current from its own battery through the part and measuring the resulting voltage, then applying

Because it supplies its own source, the circuit under test must be de-energized, or outside voltage will give false readings and can damage the meter.

• A: A frequency counter measures repetition rate rather than resistance.
• B (correct): An ohmmeter is intended to determine resistance in ohms under suitable de-energized conditions.
• C: A wattmeter is for power, not direct resistance measurement.
• D: An ammeter measures electric current in amperes.

Answer: A

Correct answer: negative. Ordinary objects become charged by gaining or losing electrons, since protons stay bound in atomic nuclei. Each extra electron adds a small negative charge, so the object becomes more negative; losing electrons leaves it more positive. A common error is to think charge is created by rubbing, but electrons are only moved from one material to another. Magnetism is a separate effect and does not describe charge sign.

• A (correct): Electrons are negative, so gaining them shifts charge negative.
• B: Magnetism is not the sign of electrostatic charge.
• C: Loss of electrons makes charge more positive.
• D: Gaining extra electrons does not guarantee neutrality.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Hertz. Alternating current reverses direction over and over, and frequency counts how many full back-and-forth cycles happen each second. The unit is named for physicist Heinrich Hertz, and household power in the United States runs at 60 Hz, meaning 60 complete cycles per second. A common slip is mixing up how often current repeats with how much current flows or how hard it is pushed; those are measured in amperes and volts, while hertz describes only timing.

• A: The volt measures voltage, the electrical push, not how often a wave repeats.
• B (correct): One hertz is one complete cycle per second, the SI unit of frequency.
• C: The watt measures power, the rate at which energy is used.
• D: The ampere measures the size of a current, not its rate of repetition.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 1 kΩ. Volts over kilohms gives milliamperes: the 1.5 kΩ branch draws

mA.

The other branch carries

mA, so its resistance is

kΩ.

• A: This is 9 V over the total 15 mA, which is the equivalent of both branches together.
• B: This assumes both branches are equal, which would split the current 7.5 mA each.
• C: This has the right digits but drops the kilo prefix when dividing by milliamperes.
• D (correct): The known branch draws 6 mA, leaving 9 mA for the other, and 9 V over 9 mA is 1 kΩ.

Answer: D

Correct answer: To the right. A dot means current comes out of the page, so with your right thumb pointing at you, your fingers curl counterclockwise. Tracing a counterclockwise circle, the path at the bottom moves from left to right, so the needle points to the right.

• A: This is the direction at the bottom of a clockwise circle, which belongs to a cross (current into the page).
• B: The field around a straight wire circles it; a compass beside the wire never points straight at it.
• C: Field lines around a wire are circles, so the needle lies along the circle, not outward from the wire.
• D (correct): A dot gives a counterclockwise field, and at the bottom of a counterclockwise circle the field runs to the right.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 0.6 W. Convert first: 20 mA is 0.02 A and 1.5 kΩ is 1,500 Ω.

Then

• A: This squares 20 instead of 0.02, skipping the milliampere conversion.
• B: This is current times resistance, which gives the 30 V drop, not power.
• C: This leaves the resistance as 1.5 instead of converting kilohms to 1,500 Ω.
• D (correct): Converting to 0.02 A and 1,500 Ω gives $0.0004\times 1500=0.6$ W.

Answer: C

Correct answer: The kettle, at 12 Ω compared with 240 Ω for the lamp. At a fixed voltage,

With

The high-power kettle has the lower resistance because it must draw more current from the same voltage.

• A: This swaps the two results; the higher-power device at a fixed voltage has the lower resistance.
• B: The values are reversed: 120 squared over 1,200 is 12 Ω, not 240 Ω.
• C (correct): At fixed voltage R = V squared over P, giving 14,400/1,200 = 12 Ω and 14,400/60 = 240 Ω.
• D: These come from dividing power by voltage, which gives current in amperes, not resistance.

Answer: A

Correct answer: Direct current, because a built-in rectifier converts the AC. Classify a supply by what comes out of its terminals. The alternator generates AC internally, but its built-in rectifier converts that AC to DC, which is what a battery needs for charging.

• A (correct): The alternator contains diodes that redirect the internally generated AC so the output terminal delivers one-direction current to the battery.
• B: This classifies by what happens inside the machine instead of by what comes out of the terminal being used.
• C: A changing size or speed does not create reversals; only a change of direction would make the output AC.
• D: An inverter changes DC into AC, the opposite of what the alternator needs.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 4.0 kW. Efficiency is output divided by input, so input = output ÷ efficiency.

The 0.6 kW difference is lost, mostly as heat.

• A: This multiplies by the efficiency, which would make the input smaller than the output.
• B: This adds 15 percent of the output; the losses are 15 percent of the input, not of the output.
• C: This is only the power lost as heat, not the total mechanical input.
• D (correct): Input equals output divided by efficiency: 3.4/0.85 = 4.0 kW.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 18 W. With R fixed,

so power scales with the square of the voltage. The voltage triples (

), so the power is multiplied by

2 W times 9 = 18 W. Check:

and 18 squared over 18 is 18 W.

• A (correct): Tripling the voltage at fixed R multiplies power by 3 squared, so 2 W times 9 is 18 W.
• B: This triples the power along with the voltage, but power goes with the square of the voltage.
• C: Power stays the same only if the voltage stays the same.
• D: This multiplies by 27, the cube of the voltage ratio; power depends on the square.

Answer: D

Correct answer: The meter acts as a short across the supply, and a very large current may blow its fuse. An ideal ammeter has nearly zero resistance and belongs in series with the path being measured. Connected across a branch, it lies across both rails and the source, forming a short that can draw a damaging current through the meter.

• A: The low-resistance meter becomes the easiest path, so it carries a very large current rather than none.
• B: To read branch current the meter must be in series with that branch, not across it.
• C: An ammeter measures current through itself; voltage is read with a high-resistance voltmeter across the part.
• D (correct): An ammeter has nearly zero resistance, so placing it across a branch connects the two rails together.

Answer: C

Correct answer: −5 V. Voltage is always a difference between two points:

The negative sign shows that point A is at the lower potential.

• A: This is the size of the difference, but it uses B minus A instead of A minus B and loses the sign.
• B: This adds the two node voltages, but a voltmeter reports a difference between two points.
• C (correct): $V_{AB}=V_A-V_B=3-8=-5$ V, so A is 5 V lower than B.
• D: This adds the voltages and then applies a sign; the reading is a subtraction, not a sum.

Answer: A

Correct answer: Half as large. The slope is resistance per meter. Y's slope is

times larger, so Y's area is 1/4 of X's. Because area scales with diameter squared, Y's diameter is

of X's.

• A (correct): Y has 4 times the resistance per meter, so 1/4 the area; since area goes with diameter squared, Y's diameter is half of X's.
• B: A steeper line means more resistance per meter, which comes from a thinner wire, not a thicker one.
• C: This reverses the direction and also skips the square root linking area to diameter.
• D: The slope ratio of 4 gives the area ratio, but the diameter ratio is its square root, 1/2, not 1/4.

Answer: B

Correct answer: The crank becomes harder to turn. By Lenz's law, the induced current produces a field that opposes the motion causing it. Drawing more current makes that opposition stronger, so the person must do more work, which matches the greater electrical energy delivered to two lamps.

• A: The opposing effect depends on the current drawn, not only on the magnets.
• B (correct): The larger induced current makes a stronger field that opposes the motion, so more work is needed.
• C: Easier turning while supplying more energy would create energy from nothing.
• D: A generator cannot drive itself; that would be energy from nothing.

Answer: D

Correct answer: The flywheel. The flywheel is a heavy disc bolted to the crankshaft. Its mass smooths engine pulses, its outer ring gear is what the starter engages, and its face is one of the two surfaces that grip the clutch disc.

• A: The pressure plate bolts to the flywheel and clamps the disc, but it does not carry the starter ring gear.
• B: The release bearing only pushes on the diaphragm spring when the pedal is pressed.
• C: The friction disc is splined to the transmission input shaft, not bolted to the crankshaft.
• D (correct): The heavy flywheel on the crankshaft smooths pulses, carries the starter ring gear and provides a clutch friction face.

Answer: C

Correct answer: Camshaft. The camshaft carries one lobe per valve. As the lobe rotates, its raised side pushes the valve open, directly or through lifters, pushrods and rocker arms.

• A: The crankshaft drives the camshaft through the timing drive, but its throws work the connecting rods, not the valves.
• B: The flywheel stores rotational energy to smooth crank speed; it has no lobes and does not touch the valves.
• C (correct): Each lobe on the camshaft pushes a follower to open one valve, and the valve spring closes it after the high point passes.
• D: The connecting rod links the piston to the crankshaft and plays no part in opening valves.

Answer: D

Correct answer: A smaller contact patch, a harsher ride and faster wear in the tread center. Overinflation makes the tire stiff and rounded, so less rubber touches the road. The ride gets harsher, wet grip and braking can suffer, the tread center wears faster and impacts are more likely to damage the tire. The door-label cold pressure balances these tradeoffs.

• A: These are signs of underinflation, the opposite condition.
• B: A smaller contact patch usually reduces wet grip and braking.
• C: A stiff, overinflated tire is more likely to be damaged by impacts.
• D (correct): Too much pressure rounds the tire, shrinking the patch, stiffening the ride and wearing the center.

Answer: A

Correct answer: Lamps draw only a few amps, while a starter can draw over 100 A. Lighting circuits need only a few amps, but cranking can require well over 100 A. A weak battery or a poor connection can keep lamps bright and still fail under starter load, so a load test or a voltage reading during cranking is needed.

• A (correct): A battery or cable can light bulbs well yet collapse under the far larger cranking load, so bright lamps prove only that some power is present.
• B: With the engine off, the headlights are powered by the battery, so they do reflect the battery to some degree.
• C: A typical car uses a single 12 V battery for both lighting and starting.
• D: Bright lamps do not show overcharging; they just show that the battery can support a small load.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 15:1. Convert turns to degrees first: 1.5 × 360° = 540°. Then divide steering-wheel angle by road-wheel angle.

The ratio is 15:1.

• A (correct): One and a half turns is 1.5 × 360° = 540°, and 540° ÷ 36° = 15, so the ratio is 15:1.
• B: This counts only one full turn (360°) instead of one and a half turns.
• C: This counts two full turns (720°) instead of one and a half turns.
• D: This uses half a turn (180°) instead of one and a half full turns.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Follow the manufacturer's schedule, using the severe-service interval for towing or short trips. Maintenance details such as oil grade and change interval depend on the specific engine. The manufacturer's schedule is the guide, and driving that counts as severe service, like towing or frequent short trips, usually calls for more frequent changes.

• A: Oil grade, capacity, and intervals vary from engine to engine, so one rule does not fit all.
• B (correct): The owner's manual is the authority, and severe service such as towing or many short trips often calls for shorter intervals.
• C: Color is a poor guide; additives wear out and contaminants build up even when oil still looks fine.
• D: A full level does not mean the additives are still working or that the oil is clean.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Week 11 of 2021. In the four-digit DOT date code, the first two digits are the production week and the last two are the year. So 1121 means week 11 of 2021, which is in mid-March. The code tells when the tire was made, not how well it was stored.

• A: The first two digits are a week number, not a month.
• B (correct): The first two digits give the week and the last two give the year.
• C: This reverses the order; the week comes first and the year last.
• D: The code is week then year; it does not contain a day of the month.

Answer: C

Correct answer: To serve as the parking brake, applied mechanically by cable. Some rear disc brakes hide a small drum inside the rotor hat just for parking. The caliper and rotor are the hydraulic service brake, while the cable-applied shoes in the small drum hold the stopped vehicle in place.

• A: The hydraulic caliper on the outer rotor is the service brake; the inner drum is not used to slow a moving truck.
• B: Cooling vanes are part of a ventilated rotor; the small drum is a holding brake, not a cooling device.
• C (correct): The inner drum and small shoes only hold the parked vehicle; the outer rotor and caliper do the service braking.
• D: Backup braking comes from the second hydraulic circuit of the tandem master cylinder, not from the parking drum.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Reducing nitrogen oxides to nitrogen and oxygen. Lambda 1.08 is lean, so the exhaust carries leftover oxygen. The oxidizing reactions for CO and hydrocarbons have plenty of oxygen, but the NOx reduction needs an oxygen-poor exhaust, so it loses efficiency. This is why closed-loop control keeps lambda close to 1.00.

• A: This reaction needs oxygen, and a lean mixture leaves extra oxygen in the exhaust, so it still works.
• B (correct): Lambda above 1 means extra oxygen in the exhaust, and NOx reduction works best when little oxygen is present.
• C: This reaction also uses oxygen, which a lean mixture supplies in excess.
• D: A catalytic converter treats exhaust after combustion and has nothing to do with fuel octane.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 8 W. First find the current:

That heat is concentrated in one small joint, which can melt insulation over time.

• A: This is I x R, which gives the 0.8 V dropped across the connector, not the power.
• B: This multiplies the load's 120 W by the connector resistance, which is not a valid power formula.
• C: This uses 12 V squared times the resistance; the connector does not have 12 V across it.
• D (correct): The defroster draws 120 / 12 = 10 A, and 10 squared x 0.08 = 8 W.

Answer: C

Correct answer: Angle. Structural shapes are named by their cross section, the profile you see when the stock is cut straight across. Angle has two legs at 90 degrees and is used for frames, brackets and corner reinforcement. Channel can be mistaken for angle because it also has flanges, but it has two of them joined by a flat web, forming a U shape. Remembering that the letter L forms a right angle makes angle easy to recall.

• A: Channel has a U-shaped cross section, with two flanges and a web.
• B: Tube is hollow, with a closed outline around an empty center.
• C (correct): Angle stock has two legs meeting at a corner, giving an L-shaped cross section.
• D: Plate is flat stock with a plain rectangular cross section.

Answer: C

Correct answer: Crosscut saw. A crosscut saw cuts across the grain, while a rip saw cuts along it. The grain direction in the question decides which saw is right.

• A: A rip saw is designed to cut along the grain, not across it.
• B: A hacksaw is made mainly for cutting metal stock and pipe.
• C (correct): A crosscut saw is designed for cuts that run across the wood grain.
• D: A coping saw is for curves and intricate cuts in thin material, not straight cuts across a board.

Answer: A

Correct answer: Dissimilar metals, an electrolyte and an electrical path. Galvanic corrosion needs dissimilar metals, an electrolyte and an electrical path between the metals. Isolation, coatings and drainage can reduce the risk.

• A (correct): Galvanic corrosion needs unlike metals in electrical contact with an electrolyte such as salt water present.
• B: Unequal expansion can stress a joint, but it is a separate issue from galvanic corrosion.
• C: Overtightening can damage threads or stretch bolts, but it does not create galvanic action.
• D: Same metals without an electrolyte lack the conditions galvanic corrosion requires.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Start at 100 grit, move to 150 grit, then finish at 220 grit. A lower grit number is coarser and removes material faster; a higher number leaves a finer surface. Begin coarse enough to remove the defects, then step up through finer grits so each one erases the previous scratches.

• A: This runs backward; ending with coarse paper leaves deeper scratches than it started with.
• B: Very fine paper removes stock slowly, so it would take a long time to erase plane marks.
• C: Very coarse paper removes stock fast but leaves deep scratches that will show through the finish.
• D (correct): Going from coarser to finer removes the marks quickly and then replaces each set of scratches with finer ones.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 20 inches. Add the widths of all obstructions and subtract the total from the original clear width.

The better fix, of course, is to move the pallet and cart out of the travel path.

• A: This subtracts only the pallet (44 - 15) and forgets the cart on the other side.
• B: 24 inches is the total width blocked by the two obstructions, not the width left over.
• C (correct): Both obstructions reduce the width: 44 - (15 + 9) = 44 - 24 = 20 inches.
• D: This subtracts only the cart (44 - 9) and forgets the pallet.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Shear. Shear makes one layer of material move sideways past the next. A pin or bolt joining two parts that are pulled in opposite directions across it is loaded in shear, like a pair of scissors.

• A: Tension would stretch the pin along its length, but here the force acts across the pin.
• B: Compression squeezes a part along its length, as in a column, which is not how this pin is loaded.
• C: Torsion is a twisting load like that on a drive shaft; the pin is not being twisted.
• D (correct): The two parts push opposite ways across the pin, trying to slice it, which is shear.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Snug all bolts lightly in a crisscross pattern, then bring them to final torque in the same pattern. Tightening in stages using an alternating, crisscross pattern pulls the cover down evenly and keeps the gasket from being crushed on one side. Always use the manual's sequence and torque values when they are given.

• A: Bringing each bolt to full torque one at a time, even in a neat circular order, can warp the cover and crush the gasket unevenly.
• B: Clamping one end first pinches the gasket and can leave a gap at the other end.
• C: An impact wrench does not give controlled, even torque, and a single pass skips the staged snugging that seats the gasket evenly.
• D (correct): Staged, alternating tightening spreads clamping pressure evenly across the gasket.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 15.875 mm. First write the fraction as a decimal: 5 divided by 8 is 0.625 inch. Then multiply by the exact factor 25.4 mm per inch:

• A (correct): 0.625 inch multiplied by 25.4 mm per inch gives 15.875 mm.
• B: This is the decimal inch value with a millimeter label attached; no conversion was made.
• C: This uses 2.54, the centimeter factor, so the answer is ten times too small for millimeters.
• D: This divides 25.4 by 0.625 instead of multiplying the inch value by 25.4.

Answer: A

Correct answer: About 995 RPM. Rearrange the surface-speed relation:

With V = 25 m/min and D = 8 mm:

or about 995 RPM, before any real machine limits are considered.

• A (correct): RPM = 1000 x 25 / (pi x 8) = 25,000 / 25.13, which is about 995.
• B: This divides 25,000 by 8 and forgets pi, so it uses diameter instead of circumference.
• C: This multiplies pi x 8 x 25 instead of dividing the cutting speed by the circumference.
• D: This uses the 4 mm radius instead of the 8 mm diameter, doubling the answer.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 6 V. Series resistances add:

The drop across the 4 Ω resistor is

• A (correct): Total resistance is 8 Ω, so 1.5 A flows, and 1.5 A times 4 Ω gives 6 V across that resistor.
• B: This is the circuit current in amperes, not the voltage across the 4 Ω resistor.
• C: The full supply voltage is shared among all three resistors in a series circuit, not dropped across one of them.
• D: This splits 12 V equally three ways, but series resistors divide voltage in proportion to their resistance.

Answer: A

Correct answer: A liquid, usually oil. Hydraulic systems transmit power through a liquid, usually oil. Because the oil hardly compresses, the motion is firm and precise and the forces can be very large.

• A (correct): Hydraulics relies on a liquid such as oil, which barely compresses and gives firm, powerful motion.
• B: A vacuum is an absence of fluid and cannot carry the high forces a hydraulic system transmits.
• C: Compressed air is the working fluid of pneumatic systems, not hydraulic ones.
• D: Steam powers steam engines and turbines; hydraulic systems push pistons with a liquid.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 50 J. Use KE = ½mv² and square the speed first.

• A: This leaves out the one-half in the kinetic energy formula.
• B: Multiplying mass by speed does not give kinetic energy; the speed must be squared and the result halved.
• C (correct): Half of 4 kg times 5 squared (25) gives 2 × 25 = 50 J.
• D: This uses the speed without squaring it: one-half times 4 times 5.

Answer: D

Correct answer: A first-class lever only. When the fulcrum is between the effort and the load, the bar acts like a seesaw: one end goes down while the other goes up. That is the first-class arrangement. Second- and third-class levers move the load in the same direction as the effort.

• A: In a third-class lever the effort and the load move the same way, so direction is kept.
• B: Second- and third-class levers keep the direction the same, so not every class reverses motion.
• C: In a second-class lever, lifting the effort end lifts the load as well, so direction is kept.
• D (correct): Only a lever with the fulcrum in the middle makes the two ends move in opposite directions.

Answer: D

Correct answer: -12 m. With north positive, any point south of the origin has a negative position. The bench is 12 m south, so its position is -12 m.

• A: This ignores the sign convention; south is the negative direction here.
• B: Zero would place the bench at the bait shop itself, which is the origin.
• C: This doubles the distance and also uses the wrong sign.
• D (correct): The bench is 12 m from the origin in the negative (south) direction.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 900 rpm. With no slip, rim speeds match, so

Sense check: the pump pulley is the bigger one, so it should turn slower than 1,500 rpm.

• A: This inverts the diameter ratio; a larger driven pulley must turn slower than the driver, not faster.
• B (correct): Using $N_2=N_1{D}_1/D_2$: 1,500 times 120 divided by 200 gives 900 rpm, slower because the driven pulley is larger.
• C: This assumes both pulleys share the same rpm, which is only true for pulleys on the same shaft, not pulleys linked by a belt.
• D: This squares the diameter ratio as if it were an area ratio; belt speed ratios use the plain diameter ratio.

Answer: A

Correct answer: −2 m/s². Write both velocities with signs:

The acceleration points backward, the negative direction.

• A (correct): The velocity changes from +4 to −6 m/s, a change of −10 m/s, and −10 ÷ 5 = −2 m/s².
• B: This uses only the difference in speeds, 6 − 4, and ignores that the direction reversed.
• C: The size is right, but the velocity change points backward, so the sign must be negative.
• D: This ignores both the reversal and the direction of the change.

Answer: A

Correct answer: About 7.85 mm. The pitch circle's circumference πd is shared equally by N teeth, so p = πd/N. Since d/N is the module, p = πm.

• A (correct): Circular pitch equals π times the module: π × 2.5 ≈ 7.85 mm.
• B: This is the module itself, the pitch diameter per tooth, not the spacing along the circle.
• C: This multiplies by 2π; the formula is p = πm, not 2πm.
• D: This divides the module by π instead of multiplying.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 1.2 N·m. A torsion spring follows the rotational form of Hooke's law:

N·m.

• A: This applies the energy formula, one half κ θ squared, which gives joules of stored energy, not torque.
• B: This takes half of κθ; the half belongs only in the energy formula.
• C (correct): Torque equals angular stiffness times angle: 1.5 × 0.8 = 1.2 N·m.
• D: This divides stiffness by the angle; torque grows with angle, so the two are multiplied.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 35.3 kPa. Pressure below the surface of a still liquid rises by $\rho gh$.

• A: This uses the density of water, 1,000 kg per cubic meter, instead of the oil's 900.
• B: This multiplies density by depth but leaves out g, which gives 3,600 instead of 35,280 Pa.
• C (correct): Hydrostatic pressure is $\rho gh=900\times 9.8\times 4.0=35,280$ Pa, about 35.3 kPa.
• D: This adds atmospheric pressure, but the question asks only how much greater the bottom pressure is than the surface.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 60 N. The downhill pull is

The static limit is

so the crate holds, and static friction is exactly 60 N pointing up the ramp.

• A (correct): Static friction only needs to balance the downhill weight component, 120 sin 30° = 60 N, which is below the limit.
• B: This is the maximum static friction, 0.7 times 120 cos 30°; the actual friction is only what is needed to hold the crate.
• C: This is the weight component pressing into the ramp, which sets the normal force, not the friction.
• D: This uses the full weight; on a 30 degree ramp only half the weight acts down the slope.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 100 N. In an ideal lever, work in equals work out: effort × effort distance = load × load distance.

The handle moves 12 times as far as the block, so the effort is one-twelfth of the load.

• A: This multiplies the load by the distance ratio instead of dividing; a long handle travel must mean a small effort.
• B: This assumes the lever gives no force gain, but the handle moves 12 times farther than the load.
• C (correct): Equal work in and out: 1,200 × 4 ÷ 48 = 100 N.
• D: This divides the load by 48 alone and ignores the 4 cm the block rises.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 227 N. Downhill component:

Friction:

pointing uphill because the crate moves down. The helper supplies the rest: 400 - 173 ≈ 227 N.

• A: Adding friction to the downhill pull treats friction as if the crate were moving up.
• B (correct): Gravity pulls 400 N downhill and friction pushes about 173 N uphill, leaving about 227 N for the helper.
• C: This ignores friction, which helps hold the crate back as it slides down.
• D: This uses the full 800 N weight for the normal force instead of the smaller W cos 30°.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 2.6 m/s².

The static limit is

which 280 N exceeds, so the crate slides. Kinetic friction is

the net force is

• A: This divides the push by the mass and ignores friction.
• B: This uses static friction (250 N) after the crate is already sliding; kinetic friction takes over.
• C: The static limit is 0.5 × 500 = 250 N, and 280 N exceeds it, so the crate does move.
• D (correct): 280 N beats the 250 N static limit, so the crate slides; kinetic friction is 150 N, net force 130 N, and 130 ÷ 50 = 2.6 m/s².

Answer: B

Correct answer: 7.1 m. Gauge pressure at the lower sensor =

With g = 10, fresh water adds 10 kPa per meter, so the depth is

• A: This is the depth of the upper sensor, not the lower one.
• B (correct): Subtracting the atmosphere leaves 71 kPa of water pressure, and at 10 kPa per meter that is 7.1 m.
• C: This is the spacing between the two sensors, not the depth of the lower one.
• D: This converts the full 171 kPa to depth without first removing the 100 kPa atmosphere.

Answer: B

Correct answer: About 315 s. Heat for the water:

Energy drawn at 80 percent efficiency:

• A: This divides the 504,000 J the water needs by 2,000 W and ignores the 20 percent of energy lost.
• B (correct): The water needs 504,000 J; at 80 percent efficiency the kettle must draw 630,000 J, and 630,000 divided by 2,000 W is 315 s.
• C: This applies the 80 percent efficiency twice, overstating the energy the kettle must draw.
• D: This multiplies by 0.80 instead of dividing, which wrongly makes the losses shorten the heating time.

Answer: C

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a hexagon.

• A: This figure is a circle. The pieces in the left box do not have these shapes, so they cannot fill this outline without gaps or overlaps.
• B: This figure has 3 pieces, but the left box has 2. Every piece must be used once, and nothing may be added.
• C (correct): This hexagon is made of exactly the 2 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.
• D: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 48% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 37%.

Answer: B

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a trapezoid.

• A: This figure is a half-circle. The pieces in the left box do not have these shapes, so they cannot fill this outline without gaps or overlaps.
• B (correct): This trapezoid is made of exactly the 2 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.
• C: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 48% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 30%.
• D: This figure has 3 pieces, but the left box has 2. Every piece must be used once, and nothing may be added.

Answer: C

Check one letter at a time. Point V is at the middle of the longer leg of the right triangle, and point W is at a wide corner of the diamond. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the diamond at the center, but point W is at a wide corner.
• B: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the right triangle at the middle of the slanted side, but point V is at the middle of the longer leg.
• C (correct): The line joins the middle of the longer leg of the right triangle to a wide corner of the diamond, the same spots as points V and W in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.
• D: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the right triangle at the sharpest corner, but point V is at the middle of the longer leg and it meets the diamond at the center, but point W is at a wide corner.

Answer: A

Check one letter at a time. Point X is at the center of the triangle, and point Y is at the middle of a long side of the rectangle. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A (correct): The line joins the center of the triangle to the middle of a long side of the rectangle, the same spots as points X and Y in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.
• B: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the triangle at the middle of a side, but point X is at the center.
• C: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the triangle at the middle of a side, but point X is at the center and it meets the rectangle at the middle of a short side, but point Y is at the middle of a long side.
• D: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the rectangle at the center, but point Y is at the middle of a long side.

Answer: A

Check one letter at a time. Point K is at the middle of the long side of the trapezoid, and point L is at a sharp corner of the diamond. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A (correct): The line joins the middle of the long side of the trapezoid to a sharp corner of the diamond, the same spots as points K and L in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.
• B: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the trapezoid at a corner of the short side, but point K is at the middle of the long side and it meets the diamond at the center, but point L is at a sharp corner.
• C: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the diamond at the middle of a side, but point L is at a sharp corner.
• D: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the trapezoid at a corner of the short side, but point K is at the middle of the long side.

Answer: D

Check one letter at a time. Point V is at the middle of a side of the triangle, and point W is at a wide corner of the diamond. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the triangle at the center, but point V is at the middle of a side and it meets the diamond at the middle of a side, but point W is at a wide corner.
• B: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the diamond at the center, but point W is at a wide corner.
• C: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the triangle at a corner, but point V is at the middle of a side.
• D (correct): The line joins the middle of a side of the triangle to a wide corner of the diamond, the same spots as points V and W in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.

Answer: A

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a triangle.

• A (correct): This triangle is made of exactly the 3 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.
• B: This figure is a right triangle. The pieces in the left box do not have these shapes, so they cannot fill this outline without gaps or overlaps.
• C: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 40% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 49%.
• D: This figure has 4 pieces, but the left box has 3. Every piece must be used once, and nothing may be added.

Answer: C

Check one letter at a time. Point J is at the middle of a slanted side of the trapezoid, and point K is at a sharp corner of the parallelogram. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the trapezoid at a corner of the short side, but point J is at the middle of a slanted side.
• B: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the trapezoid at a corner of the long side, but point J is at the middle of a slanted side and it meets the parallelogram at the center, but point K is at a sharp corner.
• C (correct): The line joins the middle of a slanted side of the trapezoid to a sharp corner of the parallelogram, the same spots as points J and K in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.
• D: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the parallelogram at the middle of a short side, but point K is at a sharp corner.

Answer: B

Check one letter at a time. Point X is at the center of the pentagon, and point Y is at a wide corner of the parallelogram. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the parallelogram at a sharp corner, but point Y is at a wide corner.
• B (correct): The line joins the center of the pentagon to a wide corner of the parallelogram, the same spots as points X and Y in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.
• C: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the parallelogram at the middle of a short side, but point Y is at a wide corner.
• D: One of the shapes here is a hexagon, but the left box has a pentagon. Joining parts never changes a shape.

Answer: D

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a trapezoid.

• A: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 56% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 43%.
• B: This figure is a half-circle. The pieces in the left box do not have these shapes, so they cannot fill this outline without gaps or overlaps.
• C: This figure has 4 pieces, but the left box has 3. Every piece must be used once, and nothing may be added.
• D (correct): This trapezoid is made of exactly the 3 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.

Answer: D

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a rectangle.

• A: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 26% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 13%.
• B: This figure has 4 pieces, but the left box has 3. Every piece must be used once, and nothing may be added.
• C: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 33% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 42%.
• D (correct): This rectangle is made of exactly the 3 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.

Answer: C

Check one letter at a time. Point K is at a bottom corner of the house shape, and point L is at the center of the triangle. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the house shape at a corner where the roof meets a wall, but point K is at a bottom corner.
• B: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the house shape at the middle of a wall, but point K is at a bottom corner.
• C (correct): The line joins a bottom corner of the house shape to the center of the triangle, the same spots as points K and L in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.
• D: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the house shape at the middle of a wall, but point K is at a bottom corner and it meets the triangle at the middle of a side, but point L is at the center.

Answer: A

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a square.

• A (correct): This square is made of exactly the 4 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.
• B: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 31% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 47%.
• C: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 39% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 47%.
• D: This figure is a diamond. The pieces in the left box do not have these shapes, so they cannot fill this outline without gaps or overlaps.

Answer: D

Check one letter at a time. Point E is at a corner of the triangle, and point F is at the center of the rectangle. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the triangle at the center, but point E is at a corner.
• B: One of the shapes here is a parallelogram, but the left box has a rectangle. Joining parts never changes a shape.
• C: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the rectangle at the middle of a short side, but point F is at the center.
• D (correct): The line joins a corner of the triangle to the center of the rectangle, the same spots as points E and F in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.

Answer: A

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a hexagon.

• A (correct): This hexagon is made of exactly the 4 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.
• B: This figure is a pentagon. The pieces in the left box do not have these shapes, so they cannot fill this outline without gaps or overlaps.
• C: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 43% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 36%.
• D: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 26% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 36%.