Full ASVAB Practice Form 10: Magnetism, Hydraulics, Circles

Answer: D

Correct answer: apart. At divergent boundaries, plates pull away from each other, and hot mantle rock rises and melts to fill the gap, forming new crust. Mid-ocean ridges such as the Mid-Atlantic Ridge and continental rifts such as the East African Rift are examples. To keep boundary types straight: divergent means diverge or separate, convergent means converge or come together, and transform means sliding past each other sideways.

• A: Collision defines a convergent boundary.
• B: Divergence involves increasing distance across the boundary.
• C: Horizontal sliding is transform movement.
• D (correct): Divergent boundaries separate and often form new crust at spreading centers.

Answer: C

Correct answer: Newton. Newton's second law, F = ma, defines force as mass times acceleration, so the unit of force is a kilogram multiplied by a meter per second squared. One newton is the force that gives a 1 kg mass an acceleration of 1 m/s², and it is named for Isaac Newton. Keep related units separate: the kilogram measures mass, meters per second measure speed, and the joule, a newton times a meter, measures energy.

• A: Meters per second measure speed or velocity.
• B: The kilogram measures mass.
• C (correct): A newton is kg·$\frac{\mathrm{m}}{{\mathrm{s}}^2}$, the unit of force.
• D: A joule measures energy or work.

Answer: A

Correct answer: Condensation. The water starts as vapor (gas) in the humid air and ends as liquid droplets on the glass. Gas to liquid is condensation.

• A (correct): Water vapor in the air cools on the cold glass and turns from gas to liquid, which is condensation.
• B: Melting is solid to liquid; the droplets come from the air, not from ice passing through the glass.
• C: Deposition goes straight from gas to solid, as with frost, but these droplets are liquid.
• D: Evaporation is liquid turning to gas at a surface, the reverse of what happens on the glass.

Answer: B

Correct answer: All red foxes of one species in a particular forest. Ecologists organize life into levels: an organism, a population, a community, an ecosystem and the biosphere. A population is all members of one species living in the same area at the same time, so they can interbreed and compete with each other. The tempting mistake is choosing a mix of species living together; that is a community. Adding nonliving factors such as soil and water moves the description to the ecosystem level.

• A: Several interacting species form a community.
• B (correct): One species occupying the same area fits population.
• C: These are abiotic components rather than a population.
• D: This is closer to the biosphere.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Insulin. Blood glucose is kept in a narrow range by negative feedback. After a meal, rising glucose triggers beta cells in the pancreatic islets to release insulin, which helps muscle, fat and liver cells take up glucose and store it as glycogen or fat. Glucagon is the tempting wrong answer because it is also a pancreatic hormone, but it has the opposite effect. In type 1 diabetes, the body makes little or no insulin, so glucose stays high.

• A: Hemoglobin transports oxygen, not a glucose-lowering hormone.
• B: Bile is a digestive secretion, not a blood-glucose hormone.
• C: Glucagon generally raises blood glucose during fasting.
• D (correct): Pancreatic insulin promotes glucose uptake and storage in relevant tissues.

Answer: C

Correct answer: Crossing over. Early in meiosis I, homologous chromosomes pair up and trade matching segments between their chromatids. A chromosome that came from the mother can then carry some alleles from the father's copy, creating combinations that neither original chromosome had. Independent assortment, the random lining up of homologous pairs, also mixes alleles, but none of the other choices involve chromosomes at all: osmosis and digestion are unrelated processes, and learned behaviors do not change DNA.

• A: Osmosis transports water and does not reshuffle homologous DNA.
• B: Learning does not directly rearrange allele combinations in gametes.
• C (correct): Exchange between homologous chromosome chromatids creates new combinations.
• D: Digestion breaks down nutrients and is unrelated to meiotic recombination.

Answer: D

Correct answer: It decreases from 6:1 to 3:1. Surface area grows with the square of the side length, while volume grows with its cube. Doubling the side multiplies area by 4 and volume by 8, so the ratio falls by half. This explains why cells stay small: a cell takes in nutrients and removes wastes through its surface, but its needs grow with its volume. Large cells would not have enough membrane to serve their interiors. The tempting error is assuming the ratio rises because area gets larger.

• A: The numerical direction is reversed.
• B: The area quadruples but the volume rises eightfold.
• C: Surface-area-to-volume ratio is size dependent.
• D (correct): Correct: A 1-unit cube has area 6 and volume 1 (6:1); a 2-unit cube has area 24 and volume 8 (3:1).

Answer: C

Correct answer: RNA uses uracil instead of thymine. DNA and RNA share adenine, guanine and cytosine, but RNA uses uracil where DNA uses thymine, and its sugar is ribose rather than deoxyribose. During transcription, each adenine in the DNA template is matched with uracil in the new RNA. The claim that every gene codes for a protein is tempting but false: some genes produce RNAs, such as transfer RNA and ribosomal RNA, that do their jobs without being translated.

• A: Ribosomes conduct translation, not the cell wall.
• B: DNA replication is performed by cellular enzymes, not the Golgi apparatus.
• C (correct): Standard RNA uses A, U, C and G.
• D: Some genes generate functional noncoding RNAs.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Mars and Jupiter. The main belt holds millions of rocky and metallic bodies orbiting the Sun in the gap between the inner rocky planets and the giant planets. Jupiter's strong gravity kept this material from gathering into a full planet. The belt also marks a handy dividing line: everything inside it is terrestrial, and everything beyond it is a giant. Despite movie images, asteroids are typically very far apart.

• A: This region is interior to the main asteroid belt.
• B (correct): The main asteroid belt occupies the Mars-Jupiter region.
• C: Jupiter-Saturn is farther out than the main belt.
• D: Uranus-Neptune is in the outer solar system, not the main belt.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Transform. At a transform boundary, plates grind past each other horizontally, so crust is neither created nor destroyed. Stress builds as the plates stick, then releases in earthquakes, but volcanoes are rare. California's San Andreas Fault is a well-known example. Contrast this with divergent boundaries, where plates separate, and convergent boundaries, where they collide and one may subduct beneath the other.

• A: Subduction generally involves a descending plate at convergence.
• B: Divergent plates separate.
• C: Continental collision involves compression rather than mainly sideways sliding.
• D (correct): Sideways sliding is the defining relative motion at a transform boundary.

Answer: C

Correct answer: They can reflect isotope masses and natural abundances. Most elements occur in nature as a mixture of isotopes, and the listed atomic weight is an average of their masses weighted by how common each one is. Chlorine, for example, is roughly three-quarters chlorine-35 and one-quarter chlorine-37, giving about 35.45. Even a single isotope's mass is not an exact whole number. Protons and atomic numbers are always whole numbers, so they cannot explain the decimals.

• A: Atomic number defines an element and does not vary between isotopes.
• B: A proton count is always a whole number.
• C (correct): Naturally occurring isotopes and precise mass values produce weighted atomic weights.
• D: Protons determine identity, so the proton count cannot vary within a given element.

Answer: C

Correct answer: Retest with light varied and fertilizer held fixed, using replicated plants. In the original setup, light and fertilizer increased together, so their effects are confounded and cannot be separated. To isolate light, change only light and keep fertilizer, water, soil and temperature constant. Using several plants at each light level, called replication, reduces the chance that one unusual plant drives the result. Adding more changing factors or reporting only the best plant makes the evidence weaker, not stronger.

• A: Selective reporting weakens the evidence.
• B: Adding more changing factors makes attribution to light even harder.
• C (correct): Holding fertilizer constant while varying light, with several plants per level, isolates the light effect.
• D: Both light and fertilizer changed, so the cause is not isolated.

Answer: A

Correct answer: The median, 9 h, because the 44 h value pulls the mean up to 16 h. Sort the values: 8, 9, 9, 10, 44 h. The median is 9 h. The mean is

h, pulled up by the outlier of 44 h. Because the outlier is real it should be reported, but the median better describes a typical battery.

• A (correct): Sorted, the values are 8, 9, 9, 10 and 44 h, so the median is 9 h, and it is not dragged upward by the one extreme value.
• B: This takes the middle of the list as recorded, without sorting it first.
• C: The mean of 80 / 5 = 16 h is higher than four of the five results, so the outlier makes it a poor picture of a typical battery.
• D: The range of 44 - 8 = 36 h measures spread, not a typical value.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Wavelength halves; photon energy doubles. In a vacuum all electromagnetic radiation moves at the same speed c, and c = fλ, so frequency and wavelength are inversely related: one doubles, the other halves. Photon energy follows E = hf, where h is Planck's constant, so energy is directly proportional to frequency. That is why high-frequency ultraviolet and X-rays can damage cells while lower-frequency radio waves cannot.

• A: A wavelength increase contradicts constant c with a higher frequency.
• B (correct): From c=fλ, doubling f halves λ; from E=hf, photon energy doubles.
• C: This reverses both relationships between frequency, wavelength, and photon energy.
• D: Neither wavelength nor photon energy is unchanged if frequency doubles.

Answer: C

Correct answer: The buffered sample can undergo a smaller pH decrease than plain water. Pure water has nothing to absorb added hydrogen ions, so even a few drops of acid can drop its pH by several units. A buffer holds a base component, such as the conjugate base of a weak acid, that reacts with incoming hydrogen ions and ties them up in a weak acid. Equal starting pH says nothing about this capacity, which comes from the buffer's dissolved components.

• A: Adding acid does not usually create a strong base.
• B: Salt presence alone does not determine an initial greater acidity at equal pH.
• C (correct): Buffer components can react with some added acid and moderate pH shift.
• D: Initial pH does not establish equal buffer capacity.

Answer: A

Correct answer: $430. To multiply by 5, multiply by 10 and take half.

so the total is $430.

• A (correct): Multiply by 10 and halve: 86 × 10 = 860, and 860 ÷ 2 = 430.
• B: This multiplies by 10 but forgets to halve the result.
• C: This is ten times too large; 86 boxes at $5 must cost less than 100 × $5 = $500.
• D: This comes from a carrying slip; 80 × 5 = 400 and 6 × 5 = 30 give 430.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 1:3. Write the quantities in the order the question names them: rice first, then water. One cup of rice to 3 cups of water is 1:3.

• A: This is water to rice, the reverse of the order asked.
• B (correct): Rice is named first, so the ratio is 1 cup of rice to 3 cups of water, 1:3.
• C: This is rice to the total of 4 cups, a part-to-whole ratio.
• D: This is water to the total of 4 cups, not rice to water.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 25 minutes. When output is counted in items, add the rates directly:

rolls per minute.

Time =

• A: This uses only the first line's rate of 48 rolls per minute.
• B: This uses only the second line's rate of 32 rolls per minute.
• C (correct): Together the lines make 48 + 32 = 80 rolls per minute, and 2,000 / 80 = 25 minutes.
• D: This subtracts the rates (48 - 32 = 16) even though both lines are adding rolls.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 12 km. The speed is per hour, so change the time to hours first: 15 minutes =

Distance =

• A: This multiplies 48 by 15 without changing minutes to hours.
• B: This divides the speed by the number of minutes.
• C: This writes 15 minutes as 0.15 hour instead of 0.25 hour.
• D (correct): 15 minutes is 0.25 hour, and 48 × 0.25 = 12 km.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 24 minutes. Same direction, so subtract speeds:

• A: This reads 0.4 hour as 40 minutes instead of multiplying by 60.
• B (correct): The gap closes at 75 - 60 = 15 mph, and 6 divided by 15 is 0.4 hour, or 24 minutes.
• C: This adds the speeds; when one vehicle chases another, the gap closes at the difference of their speeds.
• D: This divides the gap by the police vehicle's full speed, ignoring that the car is also moving away.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 150%. Find the change: 100 minus 40 is 60.

Divide by the original value:

a 150 percent increase. Percents over 100 are fine when the amount more than doubles.

• A: This is April's total as a percent of March's; the increase is 250 percent minus 100 percent.
• B: This divides the increase of 60 by the new value 100 instead of the original 40.
• C (correct): The increase is 60, and 60 divided by the original 40 is 1.50, or 150 percent.
• D: This is March's count as a percent of April's, not the percent increase.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 65 cars. Cars are

of the vehicles. Then

cars.

• A: This is the number of trucks (7/12 of 156), not the number of cars.
• B: This is only 1/12 of the vehicles; cars make up 5 twelfths.
• C (correct): One twelfth of 156 is 13; cars are 5/12 of the total, and 13 times 5 is 65.
• D: This subtracts just one twelfth (13) from 156 instead of the 7 twelfths that are trucks.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 12 miles. The gap closes at

per hour, so they meet after

In that time the faster crew walks

(and the slower crew walks the other 10).

• A (correct): They meet after 4 hours, and the faster crew walks 3 × 4 = 12 miles.
• B: This is how far the slower crew walks, 2.5 × 4.
• C: This assumes they meet halfway, which happens only if their speeds are equal.
• D: This multiplies the faster speed by the closing speed (3 × 5.5) instead of by the meeting time.

Answer: C

Correct answer: $59.50. Convert the percent to a decimal: 30 percent is 0.30. The discount is

Sale price:

Equivalently,

• A: This is the amount of the discount, not the price after the discount.
• B: This subtracts 30 dollars instead of 30 percent of the price.
• C (correct): The discount is 0.30 x $85 = $25.50, and $85 - $25.50 = $59.50.
• D: This subtracts 0.30 dollars, treating 30 percent as 30 cents.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 12 mph. Times:

rest 0.5 hour,

for 5 hours in all.

Distance:

Average speed:

• A (correct): Total time is 3 + 0.5 + 1.5 = 5 hours for 60 miles, and 60 ÷ 5 = 12 mph.
• B: This averages the two speeds; the average must use total distance over total time.
• C: This divides 60 miles by 4.5 hours of riding and leaves out the 30-minute rest.
• D: This divides the total distance by the first leg's 3 hours only.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 3/40 inch. The last digit, 5, is in the thousandths place, so write

Divide the top and bottom by 25 to simplify:

• A: 3/4 is 0.75; this treats the digits 75 as hundredths and ignores the leading zero.
• B (correct): 0.075 = 75/1000, and dividing top and bottom by 25 gives 3/40.
• C: 3/400 is 0.0075; this uses ten-thousandths as the place value instead of thousandths.
• D: 1/8 is 0.125, a common fraction that looks familiar but is not equal to 0.075.

Answer: B

Correct answer: $372.60. Labor:

Tax on parts only:

Total:

• A: This charges the 8 percent tax on labor as well as parts.
• B (correct): Labor is $216, tax on parts is 0.08 x $145 = $11.60, and $216 + $145 + $11.60 = $372.60.
• C: This leaves out the sales tax and stops at the subtotal.
• D: This adds 8 dollars of tax instead of 8 percent of the parts cost.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 18 months. Solve

for t:

Convert to months:

months.

• A: The value 1.5 is the time in years; it must be multiplied by 12 to get months.
• B: This reads 1.5 years as 1 year 5 months; half a year is 6 months, not 5.
• C (correct): Time in years is 135 ÷ (2,000 × 0.045) = 135 ÷ 90 = 1.5 years, which is 1.5 × 12 = 18 months.
• D: This divides the interest by the rate number, 135 ÷ 4.5, without using the principal.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 73. Total of 8 scores:

Total of the middle 6:

Highest plus lowest:

Lowest:

• A: This assumes the highest and lowest average 82, which ignores that the other six average 81.
• B: 170 is the sum of the highest and lowest scores, not the lowest score alone.
• C: This assumes the highest and lowest average 81, the same as the remaining six.
• D (correct): The 8 scores total 656 and the 6 total 486, so the two dropped scores total 170; 170 minus 97 is 73.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 15 minutes. Moving toward each other around the loop, add speeds:

Together they cover the full 3-mile loop when they meet.

• A: This subtracts the speeds, which applies only when one jogger chases the other in the same direction.
• B: This reads 0.25 hour as 25 minutes instead of multiplying by 60.
• C: This multiplies the loop length by the combined speed; time requires dividing distance by speed.
• D (correct): Running in opposite directions they close the 3-mile loop at 12 mph, which takes 0.25 hour, or 15 minutes.

Answer: C

Correct answer: sent away. Dis means away and miss means send. To dismiss a class is to send the students away, here early because of a storm.

• A: This is the opposite of sending people away.
• B: Being let go early because of a storm is not a penalty.
• C (correct): Dis means away and miss means send, so the instructor sent the students away early.
• D: Teaching happens before the class is dismissed, not by dismissing it.

Answer: D

Correct answer: quick to react. Respond means to answer or react, and the -ive ending makes an adjective describing something that does this readily. The clue about fast replies confirms the meaning: quick to react.

• A: Accountable is the meaning of responsible, a look-alike word that is a common false friend for responsive.
• B: Nothing in the sentence is about cost; this choice ignores the reply-time clue.
• C: Hard to reach is the opposite of a desk that replies within ten minutes.
• D (correct): Responsive describes something that reacts promptly, and replies within ten minutes show exactly that.

Answer: B

Correct answer: increase. A second job adds money on top of the regular pay. AUGMENT means to make bigger, so increase is the synonym; replace changes the story and reduce is the opposite.

• A: Argue is a sound-alike that starts with similar letters but means to disagree.
• B (correct): Increase is the meaning of augment: to make larger or add to.
• C: Reduce is the opposite; a second job adds income.
• D: He kept his regular job, so the weekend job adds to the paycheck rather than replacing it.

Answer: C

Correct answer: Varicolored. Multi- means many, and colored means having color. Having many colors is varicolored.

• A: Colorless means without color, the opposite of many colors.
• B: Two-toned has exactly two colors, a bi- idea, not multi-.
• C (correct): Multi- means many, so multicolored means having many colors, or varicolored.
• D: Faded means having lost color, which ignores multi-.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Get around. Circum- means around, and the base vent means to come or go. Taking a side road to avoid the checkpoint is going around it, so circumvent means get around.

• A: Pass straight through is a trans- idea; the driver avoided the checkpoint instead of crossing it.
• B: Obey is the opposite of what the driver did by sneaking in another way.
• C: Surround and guard keeps the around sense but gives the act to the guards, not the driver dodging them.
• D (correct): Circum- means around, and vent comes from a word for come, so to circumvent is to get around an obstacle.

Answer: D

Correct answer: plentiful. Ample means enough or more than enough. Test it: packed plentiful water fits, and no one running short confirms it; excessive overstates the degree and scarce reverses it.

• A: Excessive means too much, a stronger and negative degree that ample does not carry.
• B: Simple only rhymes with ample; it has nothing to do with quantity.
• C: Scarce means in short supply, the opposite of ample.
• D (correct): Ample means more than enough, and the sentence confirms that no one ran short.

Answer: A

Correct answer: worn away. The situation shows the meaning: waves hit the cliff for years until the lighthouse was in danger. The cliff must have lost rock, so ERODED means worn away.

• A (correct): Waves pounding a cliff for years gradually wear the rock away, putting the lighthouse at risk.
• B: This is the opposite; a cliff that grew would not force the lighthouse to move.
• C: Waves can smooth rock, but polishing would not threaten the lighthouse.
• D: Ice is never mentioned, and freezing would not follow from pounding waves.

Answer: A

Correct answer: showed with proof. The engineer does not just say the jack is strong; he lifts a loaded truck to prove it. Demonstrate means show with evidence, which separates it from claim or assert.

• A (correct): Demonstrate means to show that something is true using evidence or an example, here a live lift of a heavy truck.
• B: Claiming without testing is merely asserting; the engineer actually performed a test.
• C: Hinted means suggested indirectly, far weaker than a public test.
• D: Questioned means doubted; the engineer is supporting the rating, not doubting it.

Answer: B

Correct answer: easily set off. Sense is the shared base, but sensible, sensitive, and sensation drift apart. Sensitive means reacting strongly, and a detector that sounds over toast reacts strongly to little smoke. The answer is easily set off.

• A: Good judgment is the meaning of sensible, a false friend from the same family.
• B (correct): Sensitive means reacting strongly to small things, like a detector triggered by toast.
• C: Sensation is a noun from the same family meaning a feeling or exciting event; it cannot describe the detector.
• D: Outdated means old-fashioned, but the sentence calls the detector new; the clue is how easily it reacts.

Answer: C

Correct answer: clearness. Clarity comes from clear plus -ity, an ending that forms abstract nouns of quality. So clarity is the quality of being clear. Pick the noun with that meaning: clearness.

• A: This is the adjective base; the target is a noun, so an adjective cannot replace it.
• B: Confusion is a lack of clearness, the opposite quality.
• C (correct): The ending -ity turns the adjective clear into a noun naming the quality of being clear, which is clearness.
• D: Length is about how long the orders were, not how easy they were to understand.

Answer: D

Correct answer: sensible. Judicious means having or showing sound judgment. The coach spends on needs and skips extras, an approving picture, so sensible fits and stingy fails the tone filter.

• A: Stingy is negative and suggests refusing reasonable spending; the coach still bought what the team needed.
• B: Generous means giving freely; the coach is choosing carefully, not spending freely.
• C: Nothing about speed appears; the sentence shows careful choices about what matters most.
• D (correct): Judicious means showing good judgment, which fits buying what is needed and skipping what is merely flashy.

Answer: A

Correct answer: firmly. After "held," FAST describes how the line stayed in place, and "even as the waves grew taller" shows strain it resisted. Fast here means firmly; quickly is the primary-definition trap.

• A (correct): Held fast means stayed firmly in place, which fits an anchor line resisting rising waves.
• B: Quickly is the familiar sense of fast, but "held quickly" makes no sense for a line that must stay put.
• C: Loosely is the opposite; "even as the waves grew" stresses that the line did not give way.
• D: Briefly suggests it soon failed, but nothing in the sentence says the line let go.

Answer: C

Correct answer: worsen. Exacerbate means to make an existing problem worse. The word 'only' and the ongoing flooding show the problem is already present, so worsen fits; cause would mean starting it, relieve is the opposite, and delay changes timing.

• A: The flooding already exists, so the rain cannot cause it; exacerbate means making an existing problem worse.
• B: Delaying the flooding would push it later, which is a different idea.
• C (correct): Exacerbate means to make a bad situation more severe, so worsen is the best match.
• D: This is the opposite; relieving would make the flooding less severe.

Answer: D

Correct answer: firmly fixed. Test the literal reading first: nobody at contract talks is in a real trench, so the word is figurative. "Neither would give an inch" shows each side was set and unmovable, so ENTRENCHED means firmly fixed.

• A: This is the literal military sense; negotiators at a table are not physically in trenches.
• B: An uncertain side would be open to change, the opposite of refusing to give an inch.
• C: Hiding is not suggested; both sides openly held their positions.
• D (correct): Refusing to give an inch shows each side was set in its views and would not move.

Answer: B

Correct answer: believable. Credible pairs the root cred (believe) with -ible (able to be), so it means able to be believed. Do not confuse it with creditable, deserving praise, or with credulous, too quick to believe. The match is believable.

• A: This is the meaning of creditable, a lookalike with a different ending.
• B (correct): Credible means able to be believed, so believable fits both the meaning and the adjective class.
• C: This describes a person who believes too readily, which is credulous, not credible.
• D: Doubtful describes an account that is hard to believe, the opposite sense.

Answer: A

Correct answer: Clearly labeling breakers lets people shut off the right circuit quickly and safely. The first sentence states the main claim, and the remaining sentences support it by contrasting guessing with quick, safe shutoffs. The correct choice restates that opening claim in different words and covers the whole paragraph.

• A (correct): The opening sentence states this point, and every later sentence explains the trouble without labels or the benefit with them.
• B: This describes only the problem half of the passage and leaves out the benefit of labeling that the passage is built to show.
• C: The passage never discusses who should make repairs; this relies on outside knowledge rather than the paragraph.
• D: Emergencies are mentioned only as one situation where labels help; the passage makes no claim about how often they happen.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Neither allows smoking indoors. Likewise is a similarity signal: it tells you Grand Terrace follows the same kind of rule as Oakwood. Both buildings forbid indoor smoking, while pets and the rooftop deck are differences.

• A: Only Grand Terrace is said to have a rooftop deck.
• B: Oakwood allows cats but not dogs, so this is a difference.
• C: Rent is never mentioned, so this similarity is invented.
• D (correct): The signal word likewise links Oakwood's smoking ban to Grand Terrace's ban on indoor smoking.

Answer: B

Correct answer: The company's heat-blocking claim has not yet been backed by released test data. Notice the reporting words: the company "advertises" and "says," and its website is the source for the other details. Since outside groups have requested data and the company has released none, the most that can be concluded is that the claim remains unverified.

• A: This treats the company's advertising as proven fact and also drops the words "up to," which mark a maximum.
• B (correct): The passage reports the claim through the company's ads and notes that test data has been requested but not provided.
• C: This moves the 70 percent figure from heat blocked to money saved and states it as a certainty, neither of which the passage supports.
• D: Consumer groups only asked for data; the passage says nothing about them testing the film or reaching a finding.

Answer: B

Correct answer: This year's crowd was larger than last year's but smaller than the record crowd. Check what each comparison is measured against. This year's attendance is higher than last year's and lower than the anniversary record, and both parts are stated. The new record this year applies to livestock entries, and the rain belongs to last year.

• A: The anniversary fair still holds the attendance record; the record set this year was for livestock entries, not crowd size.
• B (correct): The passage compares this year's attendance to two baselines: it rose over last year but stayed below the anniversary record.
• C: Livestock entries set a new record this year, so they could not have been lower than at the anniversary fair.
• D: The rain kept families home last year, and attendance rose this year; this choice moves the detail to the wrong year.

Answer: D

Correct answer: The fuel point was ready before the convoy arrived. By the time sets the convoy's arrival as a reference point, and had already places the advance team's work before it. So the fuel point and parking area were ready first, the convoy arrived, the trucks unloaded, and then Torres reported.

• A: The words had already show the fuel point was finished before the convoy even arrived, so it could not come after the unloading.
• B: The word then shows Torres reported after the water and rations were unloaded.
• C: This reverses the by the time clause; the parking area was already marked when the convoy arrived.
• D (correct): By the time the convoy reached the site, the team had already set up the fuel point, so that work came first.

Answer: B

Correct answer: the route to the depot that runs through the valley. The first sentence says drivers have two choices of route, and the second describes the shore highway. The one stands in for the other route, and the words that winds through the river valley and kept plowed identify it. So the one means the route to the depot that runs through the valley.

• A: The shore highway, which often closes in storms, is the route being contrasted; the one that winds through the valley is the other choice.
• B (correct): One replaces a noun phrase already used, a way to reach the depot; the words through the river valley tell which route is meant.
• C: The valley is where the route runs, not what one replaces; road crews plow a road, not a valley.
• D: The depot is the destination; it does not wind through a valley or need plowing.

Answer: C

Correct answer: Sentence 4, which calls the cabin the best deal for larger families. Describing tells what something is like, while evaluating judges whether it is good, useful or worth the cost. Sentences 1 through 3 give location, rooms and appliances. Only sentence 4 uses a judgment phrase, the best deal, so it is the evaluation.

• A: The distance from the lake and the gravel road are checkable features, so this sentence describes rather than judges.
• B: Listing the rooms and the porch's view tells what the cabin is like without saying whether it is good or bad.
• C (correct): The phrase the best deal is a judgment about value, which turns the sentence from description into evaluation.
• D: A list of appliances is a description of features; no judgment word appears.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Weekend trips continue, while weekday trips were stopped not long ago. Time words carry the meaning here. Still in the third sentence means weekend trips continue now, and recently in the second sentence means the weekday cut happened a short time ago. Only the statement that keeps both time words, weekend trips continue while weekday trips were stopped not long ago, matches the passage.

• A: The operator says weekday service could return if ridership grows, which is a possibility with a condition, not a promise for next year.
• B: This drops the word still; the passage says the ferry continues to run on weekends.
• C: Fifty years is how long the ferry has operated; the word recently places the cut in the near past.
• D (correct): Still shows weekend service goes on today, and recently places the weekday cut in the near past.

Answer: A

Correct answer: Right after 0200, Shelf 4 held no boxes of gloves. A necessary conclusion must follow from the log alone. Once the last box of medium gloves was taken from a shelf used only for medium gloves, that shelf held no boxes at all. Who took the box, why supplies ran low and what other rooms hold are only possibilities the log does not settle.

• A (correct): The last box of medium gloves was taken, and the shelf holds only medium gloves, so no boxes were left on it at that moment.
• B: The log does not say who took the box or why, so this is a guess, not a necessary conclusion.
• C: This could be one explanation for running out, but the log does not establish it.
• D: The log covers only one supply room, so it says nothing about medium gloves on other floors.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Weekly visits rose 25 percent, but the count does not show how many different people came. The increase is

visits, and

Because the center counts scans, not separate people, the same members could simply be coming more often, so the figure alone does not show that more people are exercising.

• A: The percent is right, but this repeats the manager's overreach; a scan count cannot show how many separate people exercised.
• B (correct): The rise is 150 out of 600, or 25 percent, and visits are counted per scan, so repeat visitors are counted more than once.
• C: The caution is sound, but the percent uses the wrong base; 150 divided by 750 is 20 percent, while the rise from 600 is 25 percent.
• D: The passage says nothing about fitness test scores, so this adds an effect the figures do not measure.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 49π square meters. Use the circle area formula with the radius.

• A: This is 2 pi r, the circumference, which is a length, not an area.
• B (correct): Pi times 7 squared is 49 pi.
• C: This squares the diameter, 14, instead of the radius.
• D: This squares the radius but leaves out pi.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 20. Undo the operations in reverse order. Subtract 3 from both sides:

Multiply both sides by 4: x = 20. Check:

• A: This comes from adding 3 to 8 instead of subtracting it, then multiplying 11 by 4.
• B (correct): Subtract 3 to get x/4 = 5, then multiply by 4 to get 20.
• C: This is x/4, not x; the last step of multiplying by 4 was skipped.
• D: This comes from dividing 5 by 4 instead of multiplying by 4 to undo the division.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 30 inches. Pi is the circumference divided by the diameter, so d = C / π =

• A: This is the radius, half of the diameter.
• B (correct): Diameter is circumference divided by π: 94.2 / 3.14 = 30 inches.
• C: This doubles the diameter, as if C / π gave the radius instead of the diameter.
• D: This multiplies the circumference by π instead of dividing.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 8. A factor divides the number with no remainder. Since

8 is a factor of 56.

• A (correct): 56 ÷ 8 = 7 with no remainder, so 8 divides 56 exactly.
• B: 56 ÷ 12 is 4 with remainder 8, so 12 does not divide 56.
• C: 112 is a multiple of 56 (56 × 2), not a factor; a factor cannot be larger than the number.
• D: 56 ÷ 6 is 9 with remainder 2, so 6 is not a factor.

Answer: A

Correct answer: (4, −2). The second equation is the first multiplied by 3, so both describe the line

Any point on that line works. For x = 4,

and (4, −2) gives

• A (correct): It satisfies 2(4) + (−2) = 6, and therefore also the tripled equation 6x + 3y = 18.
• B: This reverses the order; 2(−2) + 4 = 0, not 6.
• C: Here 2(2) + 4 = 8, not 6, so this point is not on the shared line.
• D: At x = 0 the line gives y = 6; using y = 3 halves the intercept by mistake, and 0 + 3 is not 6.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 1620 degrees. From one vertex, diagonals split an n-sided polygon into n - 2 triangles of 180 degrees each.

• A: This multiplies 180 by all 11 sides; the formula uses n - 2, not n.
• B: This uses n - 1 = 10 triangles instead of n - 2 = 9.
• C: This uses n - 3 = 8 triangles; n - 3 belongs to the diagonal formula, not the angle sum.
• D (correct): With n = 11, there are 9 triangles, and 9 times 180 is 1620 degrees.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Angle 8. Angles 1 and 8 lie outside the parallel lines on opposite sides of the transversal, so they are alternate exterior angles and are equal. Angles 2, 3 and 7 each measure

°.

• A: Angle 2 forms a linear pair with angle 1, so it measures 81°.
• B (correct): Angles 1 and 8 are alternate exterior angles, which are equal when the lines are parallel.
• C: Angle 3 is vertical to angle 2, so it also measures 81°.
• D: Angles 1 and 7 are same-side exterior angles, so angle 7 is 180 - 99 = 81°.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 11 inches. The third side must be greater than

and less than

Only 11 inches falls strictly between 8 and 18.

• A: 8 equals the difference, so 5 + 8 = 13 and the sides would lie flat; the inequality is strict.
• B: 18 equals the sum 5 + 13, so the sides would lie flat instead of forming a triangle.
• C (correct): 11 is greater than 8 and less than 18, so the three sides can close into a triangle.
• D: 20 is more than 5 + 13, so the two shorter sides could not reach across.

Answer: C

Correct answer: (0, -7). On the y-axis, x = 0. Then

The line crosses at (0, -7).

• A: This drops the negative sign on the y-term when dividing by -2.
• B: This is the x-intercept, found by setting y = 0 instead of x = 0.
• C (correct): Setting x = 0 gives -2y = 14, so y = -7.
• D: This reads the constant 14 as the intercept without dividing by the y-coefficient.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 500 s. Time = distance divided by speed:

Rewrite 0.5 as $5\times 10^{-1}$: the result is

a little over 8 minutes.

• A (correct): Time is distance divided by speed: 1.5 / 3 = 0.5 and 11 - 8 = 3, giving 0.5 x 10^3 = 500 s.
• B: This divides speed by distance, getting 2 x 10^-3, and then reads the negative exponent as positive.
• C: This shifts the decimal the wrong way when fixing 0.5 x 10^3, writing 5 x 10^1 instead of 5 x 10^2.
• D: This writes the front as 5 but keeps the exponent at 3, making the answer ten times too big.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 2.25 times. The diameters are in the ratio

so the radii are too. Area scales by the square of that ratio: 1.5 squared = 2.25.

• A: This is the ratio of diameters; it tells how lengths compare, but areas scale by its square.
• B: This doubles the scale factor of 1.5 instead of squaring it.
• C (correct): The scale factor is 1.5, and area scales by 1.5 squared, which is 2.25.
• D: This cubes the scale factor, which is how volumes compare, not flat areas.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 8x + 32. Use the identities:

Subtract, flipping every sign of the second:

• A (correct): x^2 + 8x + 16 minus (x^2 - 16) leaves 8x + 32.
• B: This subtracts x^2 - 16 but fails to flip the sign of -16, so the constants cancel.
• C: This writes (x + 4)^2 as x^2 + 16, forgetting the middle term 8x.
• D: This adds the second product instead of subtracting it.

Answer: A

Correct answer: x ≥ 1, except x = 3. Two restrictions apply. The square root needs

so x ≥ 1. The denominator cannot be zero, so x ≠ 3. The domain is all x ≥ 1 except x = 3.

• A (correct): This keeps the square root nonnegative and avoids a zero denominator at x = 3.
• B: This handles the square root but allows x = 3, which makes the denominator zero.
• C: This wrongly throws out inputs such as 2, where the root and the denominator are both fine.
• D: This bans only x = 1 and x = 3; x = 1 is allowed, and inputs below 1 make the root impossible.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 5. Substitute with parentheses:

Then

• A: This subtracts 8 instead of subtracting −8; y³ is −8, so −y³ is +8.
• B (correct): x² = 9, 2xy = 12 and y³ = −8, so 9 − 12 − (−8) = 5.
• C: This takes 2xy as −12; two negatives multiply to a positive, so 2xy = 12.
• D: This takes x² as −9; squaring a negative number gives a positive.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 68 bags. Write the minimum condition:

Subtract 640: 35b ≥ 2,360. Divide by 35: b ≥ 67.4 (approximately). Bags are whole, and for a minimum you round up, so b = 68. Check:

meets the goal, but 67 bags give 2,985 lb.

• A: This rounds down; 67 bags give only 2,985 lb, which is short of 3,000.
• B (correct): 640 + 35b ≥ 3,000 gives b ≥ 67.4..., so round up to 68; 68 bags bring the total to 3,020 lb.
• C: This ignores the 640 lb already in place and divides 3,000 by 35.
• D: This adds 640 to 3,000 instead of subtracting it before dividing by 35.

Answer: A

Correct answer: Avoid contact, call emergency services, and stay clear until the scene is safe. While the person is still in contact, their body is part of the live circuit, and anyone who touches them can become part of it too. The instinct to grab and pull is exactly what creates a second victim. Getting the power shut off, by trained responders or at a disconnect you can reach safely, comes first; only then can first aid such as CPR begin.

• A (correct): Approaching or touching the person before the power is controlled can create a second casualty.
• B: Water can worsen conductive exposure and other hazards.
• C: Direct contact can put the rescuer in the same current path and expose them to dangerous current.
• D: A conductive tool can carry current into the rescuer.

Answer: C

Correct answer: A steel washer. Strong attraction happens mainly with ferromagnetic materials such as iron, most steels, nickel and cobalt. Of these parts only the steel washer is ferromagnetic; copper, aluminum and brass are not.

• A: Brass is a copper-zinc alloy and is not attracted in any noticeable way.
• B: Aluminum conducts well but shows essentially no pull toward an ordinary magnet.
• C (correct): Steel is mostly iron, a ferromagnetic material whose domains the magnet can align.
• D: Copper is a good conductor but is not noticeably attracted to a magnet.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Four. Silicon sits in group 14 of the periodic table, the same column as carbon, so it has four electrons in its outer shell. In a crystal each atom shares one electron with each of four neighbors, so every atom ends up surrounded by eight shared electrons, a stable arrangement. That shared total of eight is the most tempting wrong answer. Remember that doping works by swapping in atoms with three or five valence electrons, creating holes or extra free electrons.

• A: Three valence electrons describes acceptor dopants such as boron, not silicon.
• B: Eight is the number of electrons an atom shares around itself when all four bonds are filled, not its own valence count.
• C: Five valence electrons describes donor dopants such as phosphorus, not silicon.
• D (correct): Each silicon atom has four outer electrons and forms four covalent bonds with its neighbors.

Answer: A

Correct answer: Its secondary has more turns than its primary. In an ideal transformer, voltage is proportional to turns. A step-up transformer has more secondary turns than primary turns, so its output voltage is higher, while its output current is lower.

• A (correct): Voltage follows the turns ratio, so more secondary turns give a higher output voltage.
• B: Fewer secondary turns give a lower output voltage, which describes a step-down transformer.
• C: Power out cannot exceed power in, so when voltage rises the current must fall.
• D: A transformer's output frequency always equals its input frequency.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 3,600 J. Find the heating power with

Energy is power times time in seconds:

• A: This uses I rather than $I^2$, so the power comes out as 3 W instead of 60 W.
• B: 60 is the power in watts; energy also requires multiplying by the 60 s of operation.
• C (correct): Power is $20^2\times 0.15=60$ W, and 60 W for 60 s is 3,600 J.
• D: This multiplies 60 W by 3,600 s, treating one minute as one hour.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 168 W. Each branch has the full 24 V, so use

W and

Total: 168 W. Check: currents are 4 A and 3 A, and

• A: This adds the resistors to 14 Ω as if they were in series.
• B: This is the power in the 6 Ω branch only.
• C (correct): The branches dissipate 576/6 = 96 W and 576/8 = 72 W, which add to 168 W.
• D: This is the total current of 7 A written as if it were power.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 2 A. With the wire straight across the field,

Solve for current.

• A (correct): $I=F/(B\ell )=0.36/(0.3\times 0.6)=0.36/0.18=2$ A.
• B: This inverts the relationship, dividing $B\ell$ by the force instead of the force by $B\ell$.
• C: This multiplies force, field and length together instead of solving $F=BI\ell$ for I.
• D: This divides by the field but multiplies by the length; both B and $\ell$ belong in the denominator.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 325 V. For a sine wave with no offset, the peak is about 1.414 times the RMS value:

The RMS rating is always lower than the peak.

• A: This multiplies by 0.707, which converts a peak to RMS, the opposite of what is needed here.
• B: This doubles the RMS value, mixing up the RMS-to-peak factor with the peak-to-peak relationship.
• C: This is roughly the peak-to-peak value, twice the peak.
• D (correct): For a sine wave, $V_p\approx 1.414\times 230\approx 325$ V.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 150 s. Convert first: 40 mA is 0.04 A. Then rearrange

to

That is 2.5 minutes, a sensible time for a small current to move several coulombs.

• A: This multiplies charge by current; time is charge divided by current.
• B: This divides 6 by 40 without converting 40 mA to 0.04 A, so it is off by a factor of 1,000.
• C (correct): Converting 40 mA to 0.04 A and using t = Q/I gives 6 divided by 0.04, which is 150 s.
• D: This multiplies 6 by 40 instead of dividing, ignoring the milli prefix as well.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Net positive, because electrons were pushed off to ground and could not return. The negative rod repels the sphere's mobile electrons toward the far side. Grounding that side lets some of those electrons escape to Earth. Removing the ground before the rod traps the shortage, so the sphere ends with more protons than electrons: a net positive charge, opposite to the rod.

• A: The rod never touched the sphere, so none of its charge transferred; this describes charging by contact, not induction.
• B: Without the ground connection it would stay neutral, but grounding let electrons leave, so the total changed.
• C: A negative rod repels electrons, so they flow away into the ground, not up from it.
• D (correct): The rod drove electrons out through the ground wire; once the ground is removed first, the sphere is left short of electrons.

Answer: B

Correct answer: The red lamp goes out and the green lamp lights. An SPDT switch has one common contact that connects to either of two fixed contacts. Flipping it moves the connection from the red lamp's path to the green lamp's path, so the red lamp turns off and the green lamp turns on.

• A: An SPDT switch's common contact touches only one fixed contact at a time, so it never feeds both lamps together.
• B (correct): Flipping the switch moves the common contact from the red lamp's throw to the green lamp's throw, steering current to the other path.
• C: An SPDT switch steers current to one of two paths; turning everything off needs a center-off or different switch.
• D: Changing the switch position changes which fixed contact the common terminal touches, so the lit lamp changes.

Answer: D

Correct answer: The third lamp is open. When a series loop is open, the current is zero, so every intact component drops 0 V. By the loop rule the entire 12 V appears across the break, which places the open at the third lamp.

• A: A shorted lamp would show 0 V, and the other two lamps would light with 6 V each.
• B: An open first lamp would show 12 V across the first lamp and 0 V across the others.
• C: A dead battery would give 0 V across every lamp, not 12 V across one of them.
• D (correct): With no current, intact lamps drop 0 V, and the full source voltage appears across the open part.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 1,215 W. Find the resistance from the rating:

At 108 V:

This equals $1500\times 0.9^2$.

• A: This scales the power by 0.9 in proportion to voltage, but power in a resistor depends on voltage squared.
• B: The rating applies only at 120 V; at a lower voltage a fixed resistance makes less power.
• C (correct): The element is 9.6 $\Omega$, and $108^2/9.6$ gives 1,215 W.
• D: This divides by 0.9, assuming a lower voltage makes more power, which is backward for a resistor.

Answer: C

Correct answer: The lamp lights, but the LED stays dark. Trace each branch. The fuse is intact and the switch is closed, so the lamp branch completes a loop and the lamp lights. In the other branch, the cathode bar faces the positive side, so the LED is reverse biased and its branch carries no current. Parallel branches work independently.

• A: The lamp branch has nothing blocking it, and the LED is the part facing the wrong way.
• B: The LED's bar faces the positive side, so it is reverse biased and does not conduct.
• C (correct): The lamp branch has a complete path, while the reversed LED is reverse biased and blocks its branch.
• D: The LED blocks only its own parallel branch; the lamp branch still completes the loop.

Answer: C

Correct answer: Essentially no voltage, because the core's magnetic flux is not changing. A transformer induces voltage in its secondary only when the magnetic flux in the core keeps changing. A battery's steady current makes a constant field, so after switch-on nothing is induced. That is why transformers are used with AC and are useless on steady DC.

• A: Nothing in the circuit reverses or alternates, so no AC output is produced.
• B: No ongoing voltage is induced at all, so the output cannot be higher or lower than 12 V.
• C (correct): Steady DC makes an unchanging field, and an unchanging field induces no ongoing voltage in the secondary.
• D: The turns ratio scales only induced voltage, and steady DC induces none after the moment of connection.

Answer: B

Correct answer: It reduces the leg effort needed to brake. The booster sits between the pedal and the master cylinder and multiplies the driver's effort, often using engine vacuum acting on a large diaphragm. It lowers the foot force needed but does not create braking by itself.

• A: Spare fluid is held in the reservoir on top of the master cylinder, not in the booster.
• B (correct): The booster adds push to the pushrod so the driver needs less foot force for the same braking.
• C: The booster only assists the driver's push; it does not apply the brakes on its own.
• D: Adjusting pressure at a locking wheel is the job of the ABS modulator.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Passes coolant heat to the air flowing through its fins. The water pump circulates coolant through passages in the block and head, where it absorbs heat. The hot coolant then flows through the radiator, and air moving through the fins carries the heat away.

• A: Moving the coolant is the water pump's job.
• B: That is what the thermostat does before it opens; the radiator does not hold coolant back.
• C: The radiator handles coolant, not oil, and it sits outside the engine rather than inside the cylinders.
• D (correct): Coolant picks up heat in the block and head, and the radiator gives that heat off to the air passing through it.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 1,260 N less. Water lowers the friction coefficient, which lowers the grip limit.

Dry:

Wet:

The drop is

• A: 2,100 N is the wet-road limit itself, not the amount lost.
• B: 3,360 N is the dry-road limit, not the reduction.
• C (correct): Dry: 0.8 x 4,200 = 3,360 N. Wet: 0.5 x 4,200 = 2,100 N. Difference: 1,260 N.
• D: This adds the dry and wet limits instead of subtracting them.

Answer: A

Correct answer: The turbine. Follow the fluid: the impeller turns with the engine and flings fluid outward, the fluid strikes the turbine, and the turbine turns the transmission input shaft. The stator redirects the fluid on its way back.

• A (correct): The turbine is struck by the fluid and drives the transmission input.
• B: The impeller, or pump, turns with the engine and throws the fluid; it is the input element.
• C: The stator sits between the other two and redirects returning fluid; it does not drive the input shaft.
• D: The lock-up clutch only joins engine and transmission mechanically at cruise; it is not the fluid-driven element.

Answer: A

Correct answer: It increases by about 25 percent. At a fixed pressure, fuel delivered is roughly proportional to the time the injector is open.

So about 25 percent more fuel is delivered per pulse.

• A (correct): The change is 0.8 ms, and 0.8 divided by the original 3.2 ms is 0.25, so about 25 percent more fuel.
• B: This divides the 0.8 ms change by the new 4.0 ms value; a percent increase is based on the original value.
• C: A longer opening time at the same pressure lets more fuel through, not less.
• D: With pressure constant, the amount of fuel depends on how long the injector stays open, which increased.

Answer: A

Correct answer: The length of the tie rods, using the threads between inner and outer ends. Toe is the angle of the tires seen from above. The tie rods connect the rack to the knuckles, and the threads between the inner and outer pieces let a technician change their length, which turns each wheel slightly in or out.

• A (correct): Toe is set by turning the threaded tie rod connection to lengthen or shorten each rod.
• B: Balance weights correct uneven mass for a smooth spin; they do not change wheel angles.
• C: Spring seats change ride height and preload, not the direction the wheels point, so toe is not set there.
• D: The anti-roll bar limits body roll and has no role in setting toe.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 2 Ω. Use

• A: This multiplies voltage by current; Ohm's law divides voltage by current to get resistance.
• B: This divides current by voltage, which inverts the formula.
• C (correct): Resistance equals voltage divided by current: 12 V divided by 6 A is 2 ohms.
• D: This subtracts the current from the voltage; volts and amps cannot be subtracted to give ohms.

Answer: D

Correct answer: The A/C condenser sits in front of the radiator and needs airflow too. The A/C condenser is mounted in front of the radiator and must reject heat to passing air just as the radiator does. At low speed there is little ram air, so the fan is commanded on with the A/C to keep air flowing through both.

• A: The compressor is not the reason; the fan helps the condenser and radiator, which sit in the airflow at the front.
• B: The fan is also switched on by coolant temperature, so A/C is not its only trigger.
• C: A fan moves air; it does not relieve coolant pressure, which is the pressure cap's job.
• D (correct): The condenser sheds heat into the same air stream as the radiator, so the fan runs to keep air moving through both.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 1,110 rpm. Carrier speed is the average of the two axle speeds:

The driveshaft is the input to a 3.7:1 final drive, so it turns 3.7 times faster than the carrier:

• A: This multiplies the outside wheel speed by 3.7 instead of using the carrier's average speed.
• B: This adds the two wheel speeds without dividing by 2 before applying the final drive.
• C: This divides the carrier speed by the ratio, but the driveshaft is the input side and turns faster.
• D (correct): Carrier speed is (336 + 264) ÷ 2 = 300 rpm, and the driveshaft turns 3.7 times faster: 300 × 3.7 = 1,110 rpm.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 32.4 W. Series resistances add, so the total is

and the current is

The lamp gets

so its power is

The connector takes the other 1.2 V and turns 3.6 W into heat, which is why the lamp glows dimmer than it would with clean connections.

• A: This ignores the corroded connector and uses the full 12 V across 3.6 ohms.
• B: This is the power of the whole circuit (12 V x 3 A), which includes the power wasted in the connector.
• C: This is the heat made in the connector (3 squared x 0.4), not the power used by the lamp.
• D (correct): Current is 12 / 4.0 = 3 A, the lamp drops 3 x 3.6 = 10.8 V, and 10.8 V x 3 A = 32.4 W.

Answer: C

Correct answer: Resistance to corrosion in salt water. Chemical properties describe how a material reacts with its environment, such as rusting or attack by salt water, acids or solvents. Melting point and conductivity are physical properties, and hardness is a mechanical property.

• A: Melting point can be found without changing what the metal is made of, so it is a physical property.
• B: Hardness describes the response to an indenting force, so it is a mechanical property.
• C (correct): Corrosion is a reaction between the metal and its surroundings, which makes it a chemical property.
• D: How fast heat flows through a material is observed without changing it, so it is a physical property.

Answer: A

Correct answer: Across the grain, in its width. Wood swells and shrinks with humidity, and nearly all of that movement happens across the grain. That is why wide solid tops are fastened in ways that let the width move instead of being locked tight.

• A (correct): Wood gains and loses moisture mostly with changes across the grain, so a wide top grows and shrinks in width.
• B: Lengthwise movement along the fibers is generally very small compared with movement across the grain.
• C: Wood is not uniform; it moves much more across the grain than along it.
• D: Dried wood still absorbs and releases moisture from the air, so it keeps moving with the seasons.

Answer: A

Correct answer: About 1,696 mm³. Volume of a cylinder is $\pi r^{2}h$. The radius is half of 12 mm, so r = 6 mm.

• A (correct): With r = 6 mm, pi x 36 x 15 is about 1,696 mm³.
• B: This squares the 12 mm diameter instead of the 6 mm radius.
• C: This uses pi x diameter x thickness and never squares the radius.
• D: This squares the radius and multiplies by thickness but leaves out pi.

Answer: A

Correct answer: The pass rate is 95%, but the press must not run until the interlock is fixed. Pass rate = 38 / 40 x 100 = 95%. That percentage describes the checklist, not the safety of the press: a failed interlock on a critical safeguard means the press stays out of service until it is repaired.

• A (correct): 38 / 40 = 0.95 = 95%, and a failed critical safeguard stops work no matter how many other items passed.
• B: A completion percentage does not measure safety; a single failed safety interlock makes the machine unsafe to use.
• C: 5% is the failure rate (2 of 40), not the pass rate, and redoing the checklist does not fix the interlock.
• D: 38 is the number of items passed, not the percentage; 38 out of 40 is 95%.

Answer: B

Correct answer: About 1,148 °F, so brazing. Convert:

A filler that melts above about 840 °F (450 °C), but below the base metal, is a brazing filler.

• A: The conversion is right, but soldering fillers melt at or below about 840 °F.
• B (correct): (9/5)(620) + 32 = 1,148 °F, which is above 840 °F, the brazing range.
• C: This multiplies by 9/5 but forgets to add 32.
• D: This applies the Fahrenheit-to-Celsius formula to a value that is already in Celsius.

Answer: C

Correct answer: To the left of the front view. In third-angle projection the right-side view goes to the right of the front view. First-angle reverses these placements, so the right-side view appears to the left. Always check the projection symbol before reading view positions.

• A: In first-angle layout the top view is placed below the front view, and no side view goes above it.
• B: That is the third-angle (common US) placement, not first-angle.
• C (correct): First-angle projection reverses the third-angle placements, so the right-side view sits to the left.
• D: In first-angle, the space below the front view holds the top view, not a side view.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Counterboring. Match the recess to the head shape. A cylindrical head that seats on a flat bottom needs a counterbore, while a conical head needs a countersink.

• A: A countersink makes a cone-shaped recess for a tapered flat-head screw, not a flat-bottomed cylinder.
• B: Reaming finishes an existing hole to a closer size; it does not cut a larger stepped recess for a head.
• C: Tapping cuts internal threads; it does not make room for the screw head.
• D (correct): A counterbore makes a larger cylindrical, flat-bottomed recess that fits a cylindrical screw head.

Answer: D

Correct answer: Pin punch. A pin punch is designed to drive pins out of their holes. A center punch's point is made to mark a drill location and would spread the pin, so the tip must match the action.

• A: Its pointed tip is made to mark a drill spot and could spread or deform the pin.
• B: A cold chisel cuts or chips metal; it is not made to push a pin through a hole.
• C: An awl marks softer material such as wood or leather and cannot take hammer blows to drive a pin.
• D (correct): A pin punch has a flat, straight tip sized to push a pin out of its hole.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 7.5 N·m. Only the part of the force perpendicular to the handle turns the bolt:

• A: This ignores the angle and treats the push as fully perpendicular to the handle.
• B: This uses cos 30 degrees (about 0.87) instead of sin 30 degrees for the perpendicular part of the force.
• C (correct): Multiplying 60 N by 0.25 m by sin 30 degrees (0.5) gives 7.5 N·m.
• D: This divides the force by the arm length instead of multiplying them.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 5 7/8 inches. Chain dimensions must be added to get the baseline position. Add the whole inches:

Add the fractions with a common denominator:

The third center is 5 7/8 inches from the left end.

• A (correct): Adding all three chain segments, 1 3/8 + 2 1/4 + 2 1/4, gives 5 7/8 inches from the end.
• B: This adds only the two hole-to-hole spacings and leaves out the 1 3/8-inch distance from the end.
• C: This treats the last chain segment as if it were measured from the left end.
• D: This adds the numerators 3 + 1 + 1 over 8 without first rewriting each 1/4 as 2/8.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 294 N. Weight is W = mg. Multiplying 30 kg by 9.8 m/s² gives 294 N.

• A: Dividing the mass by g instead of multiplying gives a value far too small.
• B: Adding 9.8 to 30 is not the formula for weight.
• C: This treats the mass in kilograms as if it were already a force in newtons.
• D (correct): Weight is mass times g, and 30 times 9.8 is 294 N.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Clockwise. Count the external meshes from the first gear to the third: there are two. An even number of meshes keeps the original direction, so the third gear turns clockwise.

• A: This is the direction of the second gear, after only one mesh.
• B (correct): Each external mesh reverses direction; two meshes reverse it twice, so the third gear matches the first.
• C: Gears in a single chain on their own shafts turn freely; nothing in the train is held still.
• D: A gear driven at a steady direction keeps that direction; meshes fix the sense of rotation, not a back-and-forth motion.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 75%. Efficiency compares what you get with the ideal value.

• A: This divides IMA by AMA; real efficiency can never exceed 100 percent.
• B: This is the fraction lost to friction, not the efficiency.
• C (correct): Efficiency is AMA over IMA: 6 divided by 8 is 0.75, or 75 percent.
• D: This multiplies the two advantages instead of dividing them.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 4 m/s. Average speed equals total distance divided by total time.

• A: This multiplies distance by time instead of dividing.
• B (correct): Average speed is distance over time: 1,200 m divided by 300 s equals 4 m/s.
• C: This misplaces the decimal; 1,200 divided by 300 is 4, not 40.
• D: This divides time by distance instead of distance by time.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 205 kPa. Gauge pressure from a liquid is

That is 205 kPa. Gauge pressure leaves out the atmosphere, so nothing is added.

• A: This uses the density of fresh water, 1,000 kg/m³, instead of seawater.
• B: This adds about 100 kPa of atmosphere, which gives absolute pressure, not gauge pressure.
• C (correct): The water pressure is 1,025 × 10 × 20 = 205,000 Pa, which is 205 kPa of gauge pressure.
• D: This slips a decimal place when converting 205,000 Pa to kilopascals.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 80%. Efficiency compares useful output work with input work.

Output:

Input:

• A: This divides input work by output work; a real machine cannot exceed 100% efficiency.
• B (correct): Output is 1,500 × 0.1 = 150 J and input is 250 × 0.75 = 187.5 J, so 150 ÷ 187.5 = 0.80.
• C: This compares only the two forces, 250 ÷ 1,500, and ignores the distances moved.
• D: This compares only the two distances, 0.1 ÷ 0.75, and ignores the forces.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 480 kPa. Convert the area first:

• A (correct): 25 square centimeters is 0.0025 square meters, and 1,200/0.0025 = 480,000 Pa, or 480 kPa.
• B: This converts square centimeters to square meters by dividing by 100 instead of 10,000.
• C: This divides newtons by square centimeters without converting the area to square meters.
• D: This converts the area with one too many zeros, using 0.00025 square meters instead of 0.0025.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 2,400,000 Pa. Convert the area first: 1 m² = 10,000 cm², so 0.5 cm² =

That is 2.4 MPa, which is why a sharp edge cuts so easily.

• A: This divides 120 by 0.5 without converting square centimeters to square meters.
• B: This uses 1 m² = 100 cm², as if converting a length instead of an area.
• C (correct): Converting 0.5 cm² to 0.00005 m² and dividing 120 N by it gives 2,400,000 Pa, or 2.4 MPa.
• D: This uses 1 m² = 1,000 cm²; an area conversion needs 10,000 cm² per square meter.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 4 J. In series both springs carry the same 40 N. The 200 N/m spring stretches

• A: This is the energy in the stiffer 800 N/m spring; with equal force the softer spring stretches more and stores more.
• B: This is the total energy in both springs, not the share in the 200 N/m spring.
• C: This leaves out the one-half in the energy formula, using F squared over k.
• D (correct): In series each spring carries 40 N, so the 200 N/m spring stores 40 squared divided by 400, which is 4 J.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 3 m/s. With no losses, potential energy lost equals kinetic energy gained,

and the mass cancels.

• A (correct): All the lost potential energy becomes kinetic energy, so v = √(2 × 10 × 0.45) = √9 = 3 m/s.
• B: This finds v² = 9 but forgets to take the square root.
• C: This leaves out the factor of 2 and computes √(gh) instead of √(2gh).
• D: This simply multiplies g by h; speed comes from the square root of 2gh.

Answer: B

Correct answer: Net torque is 0; drag and friction supply 8 N·m against the motor. A steady spin rate means no change in rotation, so the wheel is in rotational equilibrium and the net torque is zero.

The only way the 8 N·m motor torque can be cancelled is by friction and air drag supplying 8 N·m in the opposite direction.

• A: A net torque of 8 N·m would make the wheel spin faster and faster, not hold a steady speed.
• B (correct): Constant rotation means zero net torque, so the resisting torque must exactly match the motor's 8 N·m.
• C: Any leftover torque would change the spin rate; a steady speed requires the torques to balance exactly.
• D: If nothing resisted it, the motor's 8 N·m would be unbalanced and the wheel would speed up.

Answer: D

Correct answer: 230 kPa. Convert to absolute:

absolute. The gauge reads

• A: This is the new absolute pressure; the gauge reads 100 kPa less.
• B: This applies the temperature ratio to the gauge pressure, but gas laws require absolute pressure.
• C: This uses Celsius temperatures (57 over 27) instead of kelvin and also skips the absolute-pressure conversion.
• D (correct): Absolute pressure goes from 300 kPa to 300 × 330 ÷ 300 = 330 kPa, and subtracting 100 kPa gives a gauge reading of 230 kPa.

Answer: A

Correct answer: 300 N. Efficiency = AMA / IMA, so AMA = 0.80 x 4 = 3.2. Actual pull = 960

larger than the ideal 240 N because of friction.

• A (correct): The AMA is 0.8 x 4 = 3.2, so the actual pull is 960 / 3.2 = 300 N.
• B: This is the ideal effort, 960 / 4; friction makes the real pull larger.
• C: This divides the load by the efficiency but ignores the four supporting segments.
• D: This multiplies the ideal effort by 0.8, making the real pull smaller than the ideal, which friction cannot do.

Answer: B

Correct answer: 300 N of pull and 6 m of rope. Three supporting segments each carry the same tension: 3T = 900, so T = 300 N. To raise the load 2 m, each of the three segments shortens 2 m, so 6 m of rope must be pulled.

• A: This treats the system like a single fixed pulley with no mechanical advantage.
• B (correct): Three segments share the load, so 900 ÷ 3 = 300 N, and each must shorten 2 m, so 3 × 2 = 6 m of rope.
• C: The force is right, but a smaller force always costs more rope distance.
• D: This treats the system as having only two supporting segments.

Answer: C

Correct answer: 900 N/m. Each third has one-third as many coils, so its stiffness is

N/m. Two pieces in parallel add:

N/m.

• A: This assumes each piece is one-third as stiff as the original; shorter pieces have fewer coils and are stiffer.
• B: This joins the two 450 N/m pieces in series, but side by side means parallel.
• C (correct): Each third has 3 times the stiffness, 450 N/m, and two in parallel add to 900 N/m.
• D: This simply doubles the original stiffness and ignores the effect of cutting the spring.

Answer: A

Check one letter at a time. Point P is at the right-angle corner of the right triangle, and point Q is at the middle of a long side of the parallelogram. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A (correct): The line joins the right-angle corner of the right triangle to the middle of a long side of the parallelogram, the same spots as points P and Q in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.
• B: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the parallelogram at the middle of a short side, but point Q is at the middle of a long side.
• C: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the right triangle at the middle of the shorter leg, but point P is at the right-angle corner and it meets the parallelogram at the middle of a short side, but point Q is at the middle of a long side.
• D: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the right triangle at the sharpest corner, but point P is at the right-angle corner.

Answer: D

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a parallelogram.

• A: This figure has 4 pieces, but the left box has 3. Every piece must be used once, and nothing may be added.
• B: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 42% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 27%.
• C: This figure is a rectangle. The pieces in the left box do not have these shapes, so they cannot fill this outline without gaps or overlaps.
• D (correct): This parallelogram is made of exactly the 3 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.

Answer: A

Check one letter at a time. Point R is at the middle of a short side of the parallelogram, and point S is at the top of the curved side of the half-circle. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A (correct): The line joins the middle of a short side of the parallelogram to the top of the curved side of the half-circle, the same spots as points R and S in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.
• B: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the parallelogram at a sharp corner, but point R is at the middle of a short side and it meets the half-circle at the middle of the flat side, but point S is at the top of the curved side.
• C: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the parallelogram at a wide corner, but point R is at the middle of a short side.
• D: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the parallelogram at the center, but point R is at the middle of a short side.

Answer: D

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a circle.

• A: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 25% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 34%.
• B: This figure is a hexagon. The pieces in the left box do not have these shapes, so they cannot fill this outline without gaps or overlaps.
• C: This figure has 4 pieces, but the left box has 3. Every piece must be used once, and nothing may be added.
• D (correct): This circle is made of exactly the 3 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.

Answer: A

Check one letter at a time. Point M is at the middle of the bottom side of the house shape, and point N is at a corner of the triangle. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A (correct): The line joins the middle of the bottom side of the house shape to a corner of the triangle, the same spots as points M and N in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.
• B: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the house shape at the middle of a wall, but point M is at the middle of the bottom side.
• C: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the house shape at the peak of the roof, but point M is at the middle of the bottom side and it meets the triangle at the middle of a side, but point N is at a corner.
• D: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the house shape at a corner where the roof meets a wall, but point M is at the middle of the bottom side.

Answer: A

Check one letter at a time. Point J is at the middle of the flat side of the half-circle, and point K is at the middle of a slanted side of the trapezoid. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A (correct): The line joins the middle of the flat side of the half-circle to the middle of a slanted side of the trapezoid, the same spots as points J and K in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.
• B: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the trapezoid at a corner of the short side, but point K is at the middle of a slanted side.
• C: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the half-circle at a corner of the flat side, but point J is at the middle of the flat side and it meets the trapezoid at the middle of the long side, but point K is at the middle of a slanted side.
• D: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the trapezoid at the middle of the short side, but point K is at the middle of a slanted side.

Answer: A

Check one letter at a time. Point K is at the top of the curved side of the half-circle, and point L is at the middle of a side of the triangle. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A (correct): The line joins the top of the curved side of the half-circle to the middle of a side of the triangle, the same spots as points K and L in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.
• B: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the half-circle at a corner of the flat side, but point K is at the top of the curved side.
• C: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the half-circle at the middle of the flat side, but point K is at the top of the curved side and it meets the triangle at a corner, but point L is at the middle of a side.
• D: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the triangle at a corner, but point L is at the middle of a side.

Answer: A

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a parallelogram.

• A (correct): This parallelogram is made of exactly the 3 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.
• B: This figure has 4 pieces, but the left box has 3. Every piece must be used once, and nothing may be added.
• C: This figure is a rectangle. The pieces in the left box do not have these shapes, so they cannot fill this outline without gaps or overlaps.
• D: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 36% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 24%.

Answer: C

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a circle.

• A: This figure is a hexagon. The pieces in the left box do not have these shapes, so they cannot fill this outline without gaps or overlaps.
• B: This figure has 4 pieces, but the left box has 3. Every piece must be used once, and nothing may be added.
• C (correct): This circle is made of exactly the 3 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.
• D: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 72% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 40%.

Answer: A

Check one letter at a time. Point R is at the middle of the longer leg of the right triangle, and point S is at the middle of a long side of the parallelogram. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A (correct): The line joins the middle of the longer leg of the right triangle to the middle of a long side of the parallelogram, the same spots as points R and S in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.
• B: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the parallelogram at a wide corner, but point S is at the middle of a long side.
• C: One of the shapes here is a rectangle, but the left box has a parallelogram. Joining parts never changes a shape.
• D: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the right triangle at the middle of the slanted side, but point R is at the middle of the longer leg.

Answer: A

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a triangle.

• A (correct): This triangle is made of exactly the 3 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.
• B: This figure has 4 pieces, but the left box has 3. Every piece must be used once, and nothing may be added.
• C: This figure is a right triangle. The pieces in the left box do not have these shapes, so they cannot fill this outline without gaps or overlaps.
• D: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 58% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 37%.

Answer: B

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a trapezoid.

• A: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 27% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 37%.
• B (correct): This trapezoid is made of exactly the 4 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.
• C: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 47% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 37%.
• D: This figure is a parallelogram. The pieces in the left box do not have these shapes, so they cannot fill this outline without gaps or overlaps.

Answer: D

Check one letter at a time. Point P is at the middle of the bottom side of the house shape, and point Q is at a corner of the hexagon. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the house shape at a bottom corner, but point P is at the middle of the bottom side.
• B: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the hexagon at the center, but point Q is at a corner.
• C: One of the shapes here is a pentagon, but the left box has a hexagon. Joining parts never changes a shape.
• D (correct): The line joins the middle of the bottom side of the house shape to a corner of the hexagon, the same spots as points P and Q in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.

Answer: D

Check one letter at a time. Point J is at the center of the triangle, and point K is at the center of the diamond. Cross out any figure where either end of the line lands somewhere else or where a shape has changed. The shapes may be turned, so find each point by its place on the shape (corner, middle of a side, center), not by up, down, left or right.

• A: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the diamond at a wide corner, but point K is at the center.
• B: The line ends in the wrong place: it meets the diamond at the middle of a side, but point K is at the center.
• C: One of the shapes here is a square, but the left box has a diamond. Joining parts never changes a shape.
• D (correct): The line joins the center of the triangle to the center of the diamond, the same spots as points J and K in the left box; turning a shape does not move a point on it.

Answer: B

Count the pieces first: every figure must use each piece exactly once, with nothing added. Then pick one distinctive piece, such as the largest one or one with a curved or sharply pointed edge, and look for it in each figure; pieces may be turned but never flipped over. A figure whose cut lines are in different places has pieces of different sizes and can be crossed out. Here the pieces fit together into a rectangle.

• A: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 32% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 24%.
• B (correct): This rectangle is made of exactly the 4 pieces in the left box, each only turned and slid into place.
• C: A cut is in a different place, so the pieces do not match: one piece here covers about 45% of the shape, but the matching piece in the left box covers about 34%.
• D: This figure is a parallelogram. The pieces in the left box do not have these shapes, so they cannot fill this outline without gaps or overlaps.