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ASVAB General Science Practice Test 6

The sixth General Science form works as a final check before test day. It opens with genetics and evolution, moves into energy, heat and waves, and includes integrated science items that combine biology, chemistry and physics. You have 12 minutes for 15 questions.

  • 15 questions
  • 12 minutes
  • Every answer explained
  1. Pick your answers. You can change them until you check.
  2. Check my answers scores the test by subtest and opens every explanation.
0 / 15 answered

General Science

15 questions · 12 min on the real test
Question 1 · GS · easy

Which molecule is a widely used immediate energy carrier for cell activities?

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Answer: C

Correct answer: ATP. ATP, adenosine triphosphate, stores energy in the bonds linking its phosphate groups. When the last phosphate is removed, ATP becomes ADP and releases energy that powers muscle contraction, active transport, and building molecules. Cells then recharge ADP back to ATP using energy from food. Think of ATP as rechargeable cash for the cell. DNA is a tempting distractor because it is also a famous three-letter molecule, but it stores genetic information, not usable energy.

  • A: Chlorophyll is a light-absorbing pigment.
  • B: Cellulose is structural plant wall material.
  • C (correct): Correct: ATP transfers usable energy to cellular work, including transport and movement.
  • D: DNA chiefly stores hereditary information.
Question 2 · GS · easy

What is the correct SI unit for force?

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Answer: D

Correct answer: Newton. Newton's second law, F = ma, defines the unit: one newton is the force that accelerates a 1-kilogram mass at 1 meter per second squared, so 1 N = 1 kg·m/s². The joule, watt and kelvin are easy to mix up because they also appear in physics problems, but they measure energy, power and temperature. A useful memory link is that the unit for force carries the name of the scientist whose laws describe force and motion.

  • A: Kelvin measures thermodynamic temperature.
  • B: A joule measures energy.
  • C: A watt measures power.
  • D (correct): A newton (N) is the SI unit for the net force that can accelerate mass, such as the force in F = ma.
Question 3 · GS · easy

Which object is the star at the center of our solar system?

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Answer: B

Correct answer: The Sun. A star is a ball of hot gas that produces its own energy by nuclear fusion, and the Sun is the only such object in our solar system. It holds about 99.8% of the solar system's mass, so its gravity keeps the planets in orbit. Jupiter can be a tempting pick because it is huge and mostly hydrogen, but it is far too small to sustain fusion.

  • A: The Moon is Earth’s natural satellite.
  • B (correct): The Sun is the star whose gravity dominates our solar system.
  • C: Jupiter is a gas-giant planet.
  • D: Earth is a planet, not the central star.
Question 4 · GS · easy

Which digestive organ produces bile?

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Answer: D

Correct answer: Liver. Bile is made continuously by liver cells and drains into ducts. Between meals, much of it is sent to the gallbladder, which stores and concentrates it, then squeezes it into the small intestine after a fatty meal. Bile salts act like detergent, breaking large fat globules into small droplets that enzymes can attack. The gallbladder is the tempting wrong answer because it releases bile, but storing is not producing.

  • A: The colon absorbs water and handles undigested residue.
  • B: The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile but does not chiefly produce it.
  • C: The stomach produces acid and other gastric secretions.
  • D (correct): Liver cells make bile that assists fat digestion.
Question 5 · GS · medium

A gene variant appears only in an adult’s skin cells after sunlight exposure. Which conclusion is best?

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Answer: A

Correct answer: It is usually a somatic variant and not directly inherited. Only changes in germ-line cells, the cells that give rise to eggs or sperm, can be passed to children. Ultraviolet light damages DNA in skin cells, and a resulting mutation is copied only into the skin cells that descend from the damaged one. Such somatic changes still matter for the person, for example by contributing to skin cancer. The common misconception is that any DNA change in a parent will appear in offspring.

  • A (correct): A change limited to skin tissue normally does not enter offspring’s inherited DNA.
  • B: Somatic acquired DNA variation alone does not prove heredity.
  • C: Skin-cell changes are somatic and not routinely transmitted by gametes.
  • D: An individual somatic variant does not alter an entire population.
Question 6 · GS · medium

A tape measure has had its first centimeter cut off, but a student still measures from the cut end. Every length the student records is therefore 1 cm too long. What kind of error is this, and how should it be handled?

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Answer: D

Correct answer: Systematic error; subtract 1 cm from each reading. An error that shifts every reading in the same direction by the same amount is systematic. Averaging more readings does not remove it; correcting for it does, so subtract 1 cm from each length or use an undamaged tape.

  • A: The error type is right, but averaging cannot remove an error that shifts every reading by the same amount.
  • B: Subtracting 1 cm would work, but an error that always pushes readings the same way is systematic, not random.
  • C: Random error scatters readings both high and low, but here every reading is off by the same amount in the same direction.
  • D (correct): Every reading is shifted by the same 1 cm in the same direction, so correcting each reading by that amount fixes it.
Question 7 · GS · medium

Burning a match releases plenty of energy, yet a match does not light by itself. Why must it be struck first?

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Answer: A

Correct answer: Friction supplies the activation energy needed to start the reaction. Every reaction has an activation energy, a minimum energy colliding particles need. Striking the match gives enough energy through friction to get over that barrier, and then the heat released keeps the reaction going.

  • A (correct): The reaction needs an initial push over the energy barrier, and the heat from friction provides it.
  • B: The energy is already stored in the chemical bonds; striking only starts the reaction.
  • C: Burning releases heat, so it is exothermic; once started, it keeps itself going.
  • D: Rubbing on the box does not add oxygen; it provides the heat needed to begin the reaction.
Question 8 · GS · medium

Which statement about visible clouds is most accurate?

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Answer: A

Correct answer: They consist of tiny liquid droplets, ice crystals, or both. A cloud is visible because these particles scatter sunlight. Water vapor is a transparent gas, so a cloud forms only when vapor condenses onto tiny particles such as dust or salt, called condensation nuclei. Low, warm clouds are mostly droplets, while high, wispy cirrus clouds are made of ice crystals. The tempting error is treating clouds as vapor, which you could never actually see.

  • A (correct): Visible cloud particles are small liquid droplets, ice crystals, or a mixture.
  • B: Volcanic gases can influence clouds but are not the defining constituent.
  • C: Water vapor is an invisible gas; clouds become visible only after vapor condenses into droplets or ice.
  • D: Clouds are collections of tiny particles, not single solid blocks.
Question 9 · GS · medium

A mirror receives a light ray at 35° measured from its surface normal. What is the reflection angle from the normal?

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Answer: D

Correct answer: 35°. The law of reflection says the angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence, with both measured from the normal, an imaginary line perpendicular to the surface. The key trap is the reference line: an angle measured from the mirror surface is the complement, 90° − 35° = 55°. Always check which line an angle is taken from. A ray striking straight along the normal, at 0°, bounces straight back.

  • A: Seventy degrees doubles the incident angle, which is not the reflection law.
  • B: Fifty-five degrees is measured from the mirror surface, not the stated normal reference.
  • C: Zero degrees would be a perpendicular incident ray, unlike this 35° case.
  • D (correct): The law of reflection gives equal incident and reflected angles measured from the normal.
Question 10 · GS · medium

Bubbles appear in each of the following situations. Which one shows that a chemical change has taken place?

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Answer: C

Correct answer: Baking soda is stirred into vinegar and fizzes. Bubbles are only a clue. Ask where the gas came from: in baking soda and vinegar, a new gas is made when the two substances react, which is a chemical change. In the other cases the gas was already present or is the same substance in a different state.

  • A: The carbon dioxide was already dissolved in the soda and is simply escaping, a physical change.
  • B: Shaking traps air that was already present; no new substance forms, so the change is physical.
  • C (correct): The gas is a new substance produced when the two materials react, so this is a chemical change.
  • D: The bubbles are water vapor, still water in a new state, so boiling is physical.
Question 11 · GS · medium

A technician checks a lab balance with a certified 50.00 g reference mass. Three readings in a row are 52.31 g, 52.30 g and 52.31 g. Which description best fits this balance?

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Answer: A

Correct answer: Precise but not accurate. Precision is how closely repeated readings agree, and accuracy is how close they are to the true value. These readings differ by only 0.01 g, so they are precise, but every one is about 2.3 g too high, so the balance is not accurate. Averaging more readings will not remove this consistent offset; the balance needs calibration.

  • A (correct): The readings agree closely with one another, but all sit about 2.3 g above the true 50.00 g value.
  • B: The readings are far from the true value yet very close together, which is the reverse of this description.
  • C: Close agreement among readings shows precision, but a consistent 2.3 g offset means the balance is not accurate.
  • D: Readings that differ by only 0.01 g are highly precise, even though they miss the true value.
Question 12 · GS · hard

An evolutionary tree shows one ancestor splitting into a lamprey branch and a second branch. The second branch later splits into a shark branch and a third branch, and the third branch splits into frogs and humans. Which statement does this tree support?

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Answer: D

Correct answer: Frogs and humans share a more recent common ancestor than either shares with sharks. Find where branches join. Frogs and humans meet at the most recent split, sharks join them one split earlier, and lampreys join at the oldest split. Species alive today are cousins on different branches, so none is the ancestor of another.

  • A: Living species are relatives on separate branches, not ancestors of one another.
  • B: Modern lampreys sit on their own branch; the tree shows a shared ancestor, not lampreys as ancestors.
  • C: Frogs and humans join the shark line at the same split, so sharks are equally related to both; habitat does not determine relatedness on a tree.
  • D (correct): Frogs and humans join at the last split, so their shared ancestor is more recent than the one they share with sharks.
Question 13 · GS · hard

A runner moving at 5 m/s accelerates steadily at 2 m/s² for 4 s. How far does she travel during those 4 s?

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Answer: C

Correct answer: 36 m. For constant acceleration, add the distance from the starting speed and the extra from acceleration.

  • A: This counts only the acceleration term, as if she had started from rest.
  • B: This leaves out the one-half factor on the acceleration term, giving 20 + 32.
  • C (correct): Using v0 t plus one half a t squared gives 5 × 4 + 0.5 × 2 × 16 = 20 + 16 = 36 m.
  • D: This counts only the distance from the starting speed and leaves out the extra due to acceleration.
Question 14 · GS · hard

A horizontal 12 N force pushes a crate 4 m horizontally, while an opposite friction force is 5 N. What is the net work done on the crate?

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Answer: C

Correct answer: 28 J. Net work equals the total work done by all forces, which is the same as the net force times the displacement. The applied force does +48 J, while friction acts opposite the motion and does −20 J, so the total is 28 J. Using the 12 N force alone ignores friction. By the work-energy theorem, this 28 J is exactly the crate's gain in kinetic energy.

  • A: Twenty joules is the magnitude of friction’s work, with its negative sign omitted.
  • B: Forty-eight joules is work by the applied force alone, ignoring friction.
  • C (correct): Net horizontal force is 12−5 = 7 N; net work = 7 × 4 = 28 J.
  • D: Sixty-eight joules incorrectly adds opposing force magnitudes rather than subtracting them.
Question 15 · GS · hard

A wetland has 60 species but 95% of counted organisms are one species. Another wetland has 30 species with relatively even abundances. Which conclusion is best supported?

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Answer: B

Correct answer: The first has higher richness, but evenness is lower; overall diversity depends on the metric. Species diversity has two parts. Richness is simply the number of species, and evenness describes how equally individuals are spread among those species. A site dominated by one species has low evenness even if many rare species are present. Indices such as Shannon or Simpson combine both parts in different ways, so the two wetlands might rank differently depending on the index. Do not assume more species always means more diversity.

  • A: Evenness requires counts of individuals in each species; water chemistry cannot provide it.
  • B (correct): Richness and evenness are distinct components of diversity.
  • C: 30 species is fewer than 60.
  • D: Diversity indices weight richness and evenness differently, so more species does not guarantee higher diversity on every measure.

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About this test

The other GS lessons are covered too: the scientific method, cells, human body systems, ecology, atoms and the periodic table, chemical reactions, motion and forces, earth science and astronomy. The difficulty spread is 4 easy, 7 medium and 4 hard. All questions are original practice items unique to this test.

Take Test 6 after finishing the GS lessons and at least a few earlier forms, under the same timed conditions. When you are done, compare which topics you still miss with your results on Tests 1 through 5, and work through each explanation. The number shown is practice accuracy, not a General Science standard score or an AFQT figure.

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