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AFQT Core Practice 6: Rates, Distance and Words in Context

Rate questions trip up many test takers, so Form 6 gives them extra room. Its Arithmetic Reasoning items lean on averages, rates and unit rates, and distance, rate and time, and Mathematics Knowledge returns to exponents, roots and scientific notation. On the verbal side you will see context clues, suffixes, multiple-meaning words and connotation, while the reading section checks words and phrases in context.

  • 55 questions
  • 122 minutes
  • 4 subtests
  • Every answer explained
  1. Pick your answers. You can change them until you check.
  2. Check my answers scores the test by subtest and opens every explanation.
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Arithmetic Reasoning

15 questions · 55 min on the real test
Question 1 · AR · easy

A pharmacy scale shows 12.6849 grams. What is this mass rounded to the nearest hundredth of a gram?

Show the answer

Answer: D

Correct answer: 12.68 grams. The hundredths digit is 8, and the digit just to its right is 4. Since 4 is less than 5, leave the 8 alone and drop the remaining digits: 12.68 grams.

  • A: This comes from rounding in stages (12.6849 to 12.685 to 12.69); round once, looking only at the digit just right of the hundredths place.
  • B: This rounds to the nearest tenth, not the nearest hundredth.
  • C: This rounds to the nearest thousandth, keeping one place too many.
  • D (correct): The digit right after the hundredths place is 4, so the 8 stays and the rest is dropped.
Question 2 · AR · easy

What is 497 + 386?

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Answer: C

Correct answer: 883. Use compensation: 497 is 3 less than 500.

500 + 386 = 886
and
886 − 3 = 883
  • A: This drops a carry in the tens column.
  • B: This drops the carry into the hundreds column; the sum must be more than 500 + 300 = 800.
  • C (correct): Add 500 instead of 497 to get 886, then take back the extra 3 to get 883.
  • D: This adds the extra 3 back instead of subtracting it when using compensation.
Question 3 · AR · easy

A cargo plane flies 1,575 miles at an average speed of 450 miles per hour. How long is the flight?

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Answer: D

Correct answer: 3 hours 30 minutes. Use

hours

Convert the decimal part:

minutes

so the flight takes 3 hours 30 minutes.

  • A: This reads 3.5 hours as 3 hours 50 minutes; the decimal part must be multiplied by 60.
  • B: This reads the .5 as 5 minutes instead of half of 60 minutes.
  • C: This divides the speed by the distance, which inverts the time formula.
  • D (correct): 1,575 divided by 450 is 3.5 hours, and 0.5 hour is 30 minutes.
Question 4 · AR · easy

A depot stores 48 spare tires and 72 wheel rims. What is the ratio of tires to rims in simplest form?

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Answer: C

Correct answer: 2:3. Write tires first: 48:72. The greatest common factor of 48 and 72 is 24, so the ratio simplifies to 2:3.

  • A: This is rims to tires, the reverse of the order named.
  • B: This compares tires with the total of 120 items, a part-to-whole ratio.
  • C (correct): Dividing both terms of 48:72 by their greatest common factor, 24, gives 2:3.
  • D: This compares rims with the total of 120 items, not tires with rims.
Question 5 · AR · medium

An engineer platoon strings 1.5 miles of field telephone wire in 6 hours. Working at the same rate, how long will the platoon take to string 4 miles of wire?

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Answer: A

Correct answer: 16 hours. Find the rate for one unit of work: 1.5 miles / 6 hours = 0.25 mile per hour.

Then time = work / rate =

4 / 0.25 = 16 hours
  • A (correct): The rate is 1.5 / 6 = 0.25 mile per hour, so 4 miles take 4 / 0.25 = 16 hours.
  • B: This multiplies 4 miles by the rate of 0.25 mile per hour instead of dividing by it.
  • C: This adds the extra 2.5 miles to the 6 hours as if each mile took 1 hour.
  • D: This multiplies 4 by 6, treating the original job as 1 mile instead of 1.5 miles.
Question 6 · AR · medium

A 3-pound package of ground beef costs $14.85. At the same price per pound, how much would 5 pounds cost?

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Answer: A

Correct answer: $24.75. Find the unit price first:

14.85 ÷ 3 = $4.95

per pound. Then price the new amount:

5 × 4.95 = $24.75
  • A (correct): The unit price is 14.85 ÷ 3 = $4.95 per pound, and 5 × 4.95 = $24.75.
  • B: This multiplies the package price by 5 instead of the price per pound.
  • C: This adds one more pound's price to the 3-pound package, which covers only 4 pounds.
  • D: This is the cost of two 3-pound packages, which is 6 pounds.
Question 7 · AR · medium

An electric scooter covers 0.6 mile in 2 minutes. What is its speed in miles per hour?

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Answer: C

Correct answer: 18 mph. Its speed is

0.6 ÷ 2 = 0.3

mile per minute. An hour has 60 minutes, so the speed is

0.3 × 60 = 18 mph
  • A: This is the speed in miles per minute, not miles per hour.
  • B: This multiplies 0.6 by 60 but forgets the trip took 2 minutes, not 1.
  • C (correct): 0.3 mile per minute times 60 minutes gives 18 miles per hour.
  • D: This multiplies by the 2 minutes instead of dividing by them.
Question 8 · AR · medium

Two copiers run at the same time on one 1,020-page job. One prints 40 pages per minute and the other prints 28 pages per minute. How long does the job take?

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Answer: A

Correct answer: 15 minutes. Combined rate:

40 + 28 = 68

pages per minute.

Time:

minutes
  • A (correct): Together they print 68 pages per minute, and 1,020 divided by 68 is 15.
  • B: This subtracts the rates; machines working on the same job add their rates.
  • C: This uses the average rate of 34 pages per minute instead of the combined rate of 68.
  • D: This uses only the faster copier and ignores the second machine's work.
Question 9 · AR · medium

A farm store blends 6 pounds of bird seed that costs $3 per pound with 2 pounds of seed that costs $7 per pound. What is the cost per pound of the blend?

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Answer: A

Correct answer: $4.00. Total cost:

dollars

Total weight: 8 pounds.

Average price: $32 divided by 8 is $4.00 per pound.

  • A (correct): The blend costs $18 + $14 = $32 for 8 pounds, which is $4.00 per pound.
  • B: $5.00 averages the two prices without weighting; there is three times as much of the cheaper seed.
  • C: This multiplies the 6 pounds by the $7 price, matching the amounts with the wrong prices.
  • D: $32.00 is the total cost of the blend, not the cost per pound.
Question 10 · AR · medium

A mechanic stacks a washer inch thick on a spacer inch thick. How thick is the stack?

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Answer: C

Correct answer: 11/16 inch. Use the common denominator 16:

  • A: This adds the numerators and denominators straight across (8/24), which ignores the unlike part sizes.
  • B: This multiplies the thicknesses; stacking items means adding them.
  • C (correct): Renaming 3/8 as 6/16 and adding 5/16 gives 11/16 inch.
  • D: This is the difference between the two thicknesses, not their total.
Question 11 · AR · medium

A cyclist leaves a campground riding at 10 mph. Forty-five minutes later, her friend leaves the same campground on the same trail riding at 16 mph. How long after the friend starts does she catch up?

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Answer: D

Correct answer: 1 hour 15 minutes. Turn the time head start into distance:

10 × 0.75 = 7.5 miles

The friend gains

16 − 10 = 6 miles

each hour, so she needs

7.5 ÷ 6 = 1.25 hours

which is 1 hour 15 minutes.

  • A: This reads 1.25 hours as 1 hour 25 minutes instead of converting 0.25 hour to 15 minutes.
  • B: This is the time measured from the first cyclist's start, not from the friend's start.
  • C: This divides the 7.5-mile lead by the friend's full speed of 16 mph instead of by the 6 mph she gains.
  • D (correct): A 7.5-mile lead closed at 6 mph takes 1.25 hours, or 1 hour 15 minutes.
Question 12 · AR · hard

A volunteer group has 72 members. The ratio of adults to teenagers in the group is 5:3. How many more adults than teenagers are in the group?

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Answer: C

Correct answer: 18. The ratio 5:3 has

parts, so each part is

people.

Adults:

Teenagers:

Difference:

which is also .

  • A: This is the number of adults, an in-between value rather than the difference asked for.
  • B: This is the number of teenagers, not how many more adults there are.
  • C (correct): The ratio has 8 parts, so each part is 72 / 8 = 9 people; adults are 45, teenagers are 27, and 45 - 27 = 18.
  • D: This subtracts the ratio numbers, 5 - 3, without scaling them to the actual group size.
Question 13 · AR · hard

A rental truck costs $39 per day plus $0.25 per mile for every mile over 150 miles for the whole rental. A customer keeps the truck 4 days and drives 470 miles. An 8% tax is then added to the total charge. What is the final cost?

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Answer: D

Correct answer: $254.88. Daily charge:

4 × $39 = $156

Extra miles:

470 − 150 = 320

so mileage is

320 × $0.25 = $80

Before tax:

$156 + $80 = $236

With 8% tax:

$236 × 1.08 = $254.88
  • A: This is the charge before the 8% tax is added.
  • B: This charges $0.25 for all 470 miles instead of only the 320 miles over 150.
  • C: This taxes only the daily charge and leaves out the mileage charge.
  • D (correct): Daily charge $156 plus mileage 320 × $0.25 = $80 gives $236, and $236 × 1.08 = $254.88.
Question 14 · AR · hard

A water storage tank is 30 percent full. After 84 gallons are pumped in, the tank is 65 percent full. What is the full capacity of the tank?

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Answer: D

Correct answer: 240 gallons. The added water raised the level from 30 percent to 65 percent, so 84 gallons is 35 percent of the capacity.

Whole equals part divided by percent:

gallons

Check: 35 percent of 240 is 84.

  • A: This treats 84 gallons as 65 percent of the tank, but 84 gallons is only the added amount, not the final contents.
  • B: This treats 84 gallons as 30 percent of the tank, which was the starting level, not the amount added.
  • C: This multiplies 84 by 0.35 instead of dividing; the capacity must be larger than the 84 gallons added.
  • D (correct): The 84 gallons filled 65 minus 30, or 35 percent, of the tank, and 84 divided by 0.35 is 240.
Question 15 · AR · hard

A pilot flies 300 miles at 150 miles per hour. How many more miles must she fly at 250 miles per hour so that her average speed for the whole flight is 200 miles per hour?

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Answer: C

Correct answer: 500 miles. The first leg takes

hours

If d is the second distance, its time is .

So

and
miles

Check: 800 miles in 4 hours is 200 miles per hour.

  • A: Equal distances put more time at the slower speed: 600 miles in 3.2 hours averages only 187.5 miles per hour.
  • B: Flying 200 more miles gives 500 miles in 2.8 hours, about 178.6 miles per hour.
  • C (correct): Then she flies 800 miles in 2 + 2 = 4 hours, and 800 divided by 4 is 200 miles per hour.
  • D: Flying 400 more miles gives 700 miles in 3.6 hours, about 194.4 miles per hour, still short of 200.

Word Knowledge

15 questions · 9 min on the real test
Question 16 · WK · easy

The sergeant will TRANSFER to a base in Germany next spring.

TRANSFER most nearly means:

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Answer: D

Correct answer: move. Trans means across and fer means carry. To transfer is to move from one place to another, here to a new base in Germany.

  • A: Retiring ends a career, but the sentence names a new base, which shows a move.
  • B: Training could happen anywhere; the word is built from across plus carry.
  • C: Return means going back, while transfer means moving across to a new place.
  • D (correct): Trans means across and fer means carry, so to transfer is to carry or move from one place to another.
Question 17 · WK · easy

The AMIABLE desk clerk greeted every hotel guest by name and with a smile.

AMIABLE most nearly means:

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Answer: D

Correct answer: friendly. Greeting every guest by name with a smile shows a pleasant, warm manner. AMIABLE means friendly; hostile is an opposite and able and aimless are look-alikes.

  • A: Hostile is the opposite of amiable.
  • B: Able appears inside the word, but meaning skilled or capable makes it a spelling trap.
  • C: Aimless shares the letters a, i and m but means without purpose.
  • D (correct): Friendly is the meaning of amiable: pleasant and easy to get along with.
Question 18 · WK · easy

Base regulations PROHIBIT smoking within fifty feet of the fuel depot.

As used in this sentence, PROHIBIT most nearly means:

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Answer: A

Correct answer: forbid. Prohibit means to forbid by rule or law. Forbid matches in meaning and strength; discourage is too mild, punish is a related consequence, and allow is the opposite.

  • A (correct): Prohibit means to officially not allow something, which is what forbid means.
  • B: This is the opposite of prohibit.
  • C: Discouraging only tries to talk someone out of something, which is weaker than a ban.
  • D: Punishment may follow breaking a rule, but it is not the same as forbidding.
Question 19 · WK · easy

After the flood, the muddy river BANK was littered with broken branches.

As used in this sentence, BANK most nearly means:

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Answer: C

Correct answer: shore. The partner words "river" and "muddy" select the land sense of BANK. The ground beside a river is its shore, and "the muddy river shore" passes the substitution check.

  • A: A bank can be a financial company, but the partner word "river" rules out that familiar sense.
  • B: Deposit is connected to the money sense of bank and does not describe a place by a river.
  • C (correct): A river's bank is the land along its edge, so "river shore" fits the scene of flood debris.
  • D: A bridge crosses a river, but bank names the ground at the water's edge, not a structure.
Question 20 · WK · medium

After the long flight, the passengers were SLUGGISH and slow to collect their bags.

In this sentence, SLUGGISH most nearly means:

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Answer: C

Correct answer: slow-moving. The ending -ish can mean like or typical of the base. A slug moves very slowly, so sluggish means slow-moving. The phrase "slow to collect their bags" confirms that sense.

  • A: This takes slug as a literal animal and pictures its texture rather than its pace.
  • B: Energetic means full of energy, the opposite of slow and heavy.
  • C (correct): The ending -ish means like, so sluggish means like a slug, that is, slow-moving.
  • D: Tired travelers may be grouchy, but sluggish describes slow, heavy movement, not a bad mood.
Question 21 · WK · medium

Washing the wool uniform in hot water caused noticeable SHRINKAGE.

In this sentence, SHRINKAGE most nearly means:

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Answer: C

Correct answer: reduction in size. Cover -age to find shrink, to become smaller. The ending -age forms a noun naming a result or amount, as in breakage. So shrinkage is a reduction in size.

  • A: Shrink is the verb base; the target is a noun naming the result.
  • B: Stretching out makes material larger, the opposite of the change described.
  • C (correct): The ending -age names a result or amount, so shrinkage is the amount a thing gets smaller.
  • D: Hot water can fade colors, but shrinkage is about size, not color.
Question 22 · WK · medium

Although the pay was excellent, the GRUELING twelve-hour shifts in the summer heat wore down even the strongest members of the crew.

GRUELING most nearly means:

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Answer: C

Correct answer: exhausting. Although signals that grueling stands against excellent pay, so it is negative, and the shifts wore people down. Grueling describes the cause of tiredness, so exhausting fits, while exhausted describes the workers' state.

  • A: Exhausted names the state of the tired workers, but grueling describes the shifts that cause it; this swaps cause for effect.
  • B: Boring means dull; the sentence stresses physical strain, not lack of interest.
  • C (correct): Grueling describes a task so hard that it wears people out, matching long shifts in heat that wore down the crew.
  • D: The contrast word although sets the shifts against the good pay, so grueling must be negative.
Question 23 · WK · medium

Passengers COMMENDED the bus driver, thanking him again and again for steering them safely through the ice storm.

In this sentence, COMMENDED most nearly means:

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Answer: C

Correct answer: praised. The passengers kept thanking the driver for their safety, so the word must be positive. Cut the negative and neutral choices, and praised remains. COMMENDED means praised.

  • A: This has the wrong tone; the passengers were grateful, not finding fault.
  • B: Nothing mentions money; this adds a fact the sentence does not give.
  • C (correct): Thanking someone repeatedly for keeping people safe is strongly positive, and praised has that same charge.
  • D: Questioning is neutral or doubtful, which does not match repeated thanks.
Question 24 · WK · medium

After months of exciting fieldwork overseas, she found her new desk job MUNDANE.

MUNDANE most nearly means:

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Answer: C

Correct answer: ordinary. The contrast with exciting fieldwork tells you the desk job lacks excitement. MUNDANE means everyday or dull, so ordinary is the closest meaning.

  • A: Demanding means hard, which is a different idea from being dull and routine.
  • B: Nothing in the sentence says how long the job will last.
  • C (correct): Ordinary fits: the desk job is plain and routine compared with exciting fieldwork.
  • D: Danger is not suggested by a desk job and adds an unsupported story.
Question 25 · WK · medium

The new antiskid paint proved EFFECTIVE: slip-and-fall reports on the loading dock dropped to zero.

EFFECTIVE most nearly means:

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Answer: D

Correct answer: successful. Effective describes something that produces the intended result, and effectiveness is that quality. The falls dropped to zero, so the paint worked. Successful fits.

  • A: Influenced is the usual meaning of affected, a different word that is often confused with effect.
  • B: Temporary means short-lived; the sentence describes results, not how long the paint lasted.
  • C: Noticeable means easy to see, but effective says the paint did its job, not merely that it was visible.
  • D (correct): Effective means producing the intended result, and fewer falls is exactly the result the paint was meant to bring.
Question 26 · WK · medium

The summer job at the ranch offered a small salary plus room and BOARD.

As used in this sentence, BOARD most nearly means:

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Answer: C

Correct answer: meals. The fixed pairing "room and board" selects the sense of BOARD meaning food provided with lodging. Board here means meals.

  • A: A board is a piece of lumber, but a job would not pay workers in planks.
  • B: A board can be a governing group, which is not something a job offers as pay.
  • C (correct): The collocation "room and board" means a place to sleep and daily meals.
  • D: Boarding a bus or plane is a different sense; "room and board" does not mean travel.
Question 27 · WK · hard

After ten accident-free years, the line crew grew COMPLACENT and stopped checking their harness clips before each climb.

COMPLACENT most nearly means:

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Answer: B

Correct answer: smugly unconcerned. The past success leads the crew to stop guarding against risk, and the sentence treats that as a fault. Complacent means self-satisfied to the point of ignoring danger, so smugly unconcerned matches; confident has the wrong tone and experienced names the background, not the attitude.

  • A: Confident is positive and implies justified self-belief; the sentence criticizes the crew for dropping a safety check.
  • B (correct): Complacent describes being so pleased with past success that one stops watching for danger, which is why the crew skipped its checks.
  • C: Ten years shows experience, but that is the background, not the attitude; experienced workers can still be careful.
  • D: Nothing suggests tiredness; the crew stopped checking because it felt too safe, not too worn out.
Question 28 · WK · hard

Thanks to the platoon leader's FORESIGHT in packing extra batteries, the radios kept working when the convoy was stuck for two days. FORESIGHT most nearly means?

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Answer: A

Correct answer: Planning ahead. Fore- means before, and sight here means seeing or judging. Packing batteries for a delay that had not happened yet is judging needs ahead of time, which is planning ahead.

  • A (correct): Fore- means before, so foresight is seeing and preparing for a need before it arrives, as the extra batteries show.
  • B: Sharp eyesight takes the base sight literally and ignores fore-, the before idea.
  • C: Looking back describes hindsight or retro-, the opposite direction in time.
  • D: Good luck credits chance, but packing extra batteries was a deliberate choice made in advance.
Question 29 · WK · hard

Although Corporal Ortiz was DIFFIDENT in staff meetings and rarely offered his views, he gave firm, confident orders once the exercise began.

In this sentence, DIFFIDENT most nearly means:

Show the answer

Answer: A

Correct answer: shy. "Although" sets up a surprise: his confident orders were unexpected. That means in meetings he lacked confidence, which matches the clue that he rarely offered his views. DIFFIDENT means shy or lacking self-confidence.

  • A (correct): The "although" surprise only works if he usually lacked confidence; quiet, hesitant behavior matches shy.
  • B: This describes how he acted during the exercise, the surprising half of the sentence, not how he acted in meetings.
  • C: This look-alike word means not caring, but the sentence shows hesitancy, not a lack of interest.
  • D: Honesty is never mentioned, so this adds a fact the sentence does not support.
Question 30 · WK · hard

The foreman never said the job was behind, but by posting the weekend overtime schedule, he IMPLIED that it was.

IMPLIED most nearly means:

Show the answer

Answer: A

Correct answer: suggested. The speaker implies, and the listener infers. The foreman never said it outright but sent a signal, so implied means suggested. Concluded would describe the workers who read the signal.

  • A (correct): To imply is to hint at something without stating it, as the foreman did by posting overtime instead of saying anything.
  • B: Concluded is the meaning of inferred, which is what a listener does; the foreman is the one sending the hint.
  • C: Announced means stated openly, but the sentence says he never said it.
  • D: Denied means said it was not true, the opposite of signaling that the job was behind.

Paragraph Comprehension

10 questions · 27 min on the real test
Question 31 · PC · easy

A display at the Fort Kessler museum traces the post's history. The museum itself opened in 1975 inside the old officers' club. The post's first hospital, a wooden building with forty beds, was built in 1921. An airstrip for training pilots opened on the east side of the post in 1943, and in 1958 the wooden hospital was torn down and replaced by a modern brick clinic.

Which event happened second?

Show the answer

Answer: C

Correct answer: The airstrip for training pilots opened. Use the dates as anchors and ignore the order of the sentences: 1921 hospital, 1943 airstrip, 1958 clinic, 1975 museum. The second event is the airstrip, even though the museum is described first.

  • A: At 1921, the hospital is the earliest date, so it came first, not second.
  • B: The clinic dates to 1958, which makes it third in the order.
  • C (correct): Ordered by year: hospital (1921), airstrip (1943), clinic (1958), museum (1975), so the airstrip is second.
  • D: The museum is mentioned first, but 1975 is the latest year, so it happened last.
Question 32 · PC · easy

Lifeguards at Sandy Cove Beach report that most of the swimmers they pull from rip currents in July are visitors who did not notice the warning flags. Rip currents are narrow channels of fast-moving water that flow away from the shore. Swimmers caught in one often panic and try to swim straight back to the beach, which quickly wears them out. The beach patrol advises anyone caught in a rip current to swim parallel to the shore until free of the current and then head back to land.

Which statement from the passage is a recommendation rather than an observation?

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Answer: D

Correct answer: Anyone caught in a rip current should swim parallel to the shore. An observation describes what is; a recommendation says what should be done. The only sentence that tells readers how to act is the beach patrol's advice to swim parallel to the shore.

  • A: This reports what lifeguards have seen, so it is an observation.
  • B: This describes what a rip current is, which is an observation, not advice.
  • C: This describes how swimmers usually behave, so it is an observation even though it explains a mistake.
  • D (correct): The beach patrol "advises" this action, so it tells readers what should be done, which is a recommendation.
Question 33 · PC · medium

A hardware store sells two kinds of push mowers. A manual reel mower has no engine, so it runs quietly, needs no fuel and costs about $120. It cuts short grass cleanly but struggles once the lawn grows more than a few inches tall. A gas rotary mower costs about $350 and needs fuel, oil and a yearly tune-up. It is loud, but it handles tall or wet grass easily and covers a large yard much faster. The store's flyer lists these points side by side without recommending either model.

Which statement best describes the comparison in the passage?

Show the answer

Answer: A

Correct answer: Each mower offers advantages that the other one lacks. Each mower wins on some features: the reel mower on noise, fuel and price, the gas mower on tall grass and speed. Because the flyer recommends neither, the best summary is a trade-off, not a winner.

  • A (correct): The reel mower is quieter, cheaper and fuel-free, while the gas mower handles tall grass and large yards better, a true trade-off.
  • B: The flyer makes no recommendation, so naming an overall winner invents a judgment the passage avoids.
  • C: Handling tall grass is only one criterion; the gas mower also costs more, is louder and needs upkeep.
  • D: Noise is only one of several differences; price, fuel, upkeep and grass height also differ.
Question 34 · PC · medium

A new billboard on Route 5 calls Ashford "the safest city in the state," pointing to a 30 percent drop in reported burglaries last year. That number is real, but it covers only one year, and the year before had the highest burglary count in a decade, so some decline was likely no matter what. The billboard also leaves out car thefts and assaults, which held steady. Ashford may well be a safe place to live, but one year of one crime figure is a thin basis for so large a claim.

What is the main purpose of the passage?

Show the answer

Answer: B

Correct answer: To raise doubts about whether the evidence supports the billboard's claim. Identify which direction the details push. Every point after the billboard's claim limits its evidence: a single year, an unusually high starting point and missing crime types. The closing sentence keeps an open mind about Ashford but calls the evidence thin, so the purpose is to question the claim.

  • A: The author accepts the 30 percent drop as real but does not praise it; the details all push toward doubt, not celebration.
  • B (correct): The author points out that the figure covers one year, follows an unusual high and leaves out other crimes, all of which question the claim's support.
  • C: The author says Ashford may well be safe; the passage questions the billboard's evidence, not the city's actual safety.
  • D: The billboard's location is a minor detail; the passage gives no risk or advice for drivers.
Question 35 · PC · medium

Many patients at the county clinic said they trusted Dr. Okafor more than any other physician on staff. Some doctors softened bad news with vague phrases or changed the subject when families asked hard questions. Dr. Okafor, by contrast, was candid. She told families exactly what the test results showed, explained the risks of each treatment in plain words, and admitted when she did not know an answer.

As used in the passage, what does candid most nearly mean?

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Answer: A

Correct answer: frank and honest. The words by contrast set Dr. Okafor against doctors who used vague phrases and changed the subject. The examples that follow, telling families exactly what tests showed and admitting what she did not know, point to open, direct speech. So candid means frank and honest.

  • A (correct): Telling families exactly what the results showed and admitting what she did not know is open, honest behavior, the opposite of the vague doctors.
  • B: Softening bad news is what the other doctors did; by contrast signals that Dr. Okafor did something different, not something gentler.
  • C: Patients may have trusted her for many reasons, but the examples describe how she spoke, not her medical skill.
  • D: This describes the other doctors' vague phrases; the contrast clue says candid means the opposite.
Question 36 · PC · medium

Over the past twenty years, the public beach at Cooper's Point has grown about forty feet narrower. Geologists point to several reasons. Stronger winter storms now strip sand from the shore more often than in the past. A stone jetty built at the harbor to the north blocks the sand that currents once carried down the coast. In addition, sand dredged from the river mouth is now hauled away for construction rather than left near the beach.

Which best describes how the passage is organized?

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Answer: C

Correct answer: It explains several causes of a single effect. The passage names one effect, a narrower beach, and then gives three causes: stronger storms, the jetty and the removal of dredged sand. It never proposes or describes a fix, so it is cause-and-effect, not problem-and-solution.

  • A: The shrinking beach is a problem, but the passage reports no response or fix, only the reasons it is happening.
  • B: No term is defined or classified; the passage explains why something is happening.
  • C (correct): The narrowing beach is the effect, and storms, the jetty and hauled-away sand are the causes the geologists list.
  • D: The passage mentions twenty years only as background; its sentences are arranged as reasons, not as dated events.
Question 37 · PC · medium

Because ships kept running aground on the reef near Gull Rock during heavy fog, the lighthouse keepers added a steam-powered fog whistle in 1887. They intended its loud blast to warn captains whenever the light itself could not be seen. In the ten years after the whistle was installed, only one ship struck the reef, compared with seven ships in the ten years before.

According to the passage, what result followed the installation of the fog whistle?

Show the answer

Answer: B

Correct answer: Fewer ships struck the reef than in the ten years before. Sort the details: fog groundings are the cause, warning captains is the purpose, and the drop from seven ships to one is the outcome. The question asks for the result, so the answer is that fewer ships struck the reef. Saying none struck it goes beyond the passage.

  • A: This is the cause that led the keepers to add the whistle, not what happened afterward.
  • B (correct): The passage reports one ship striking the reef in the following ten years, compared with seven before, which is the outcome.
  • C: This describes what the keepers intended the whistle to do, its purpose, rather than the result the passage reports.
  • D: This overstates the outcome; the passage says one ship still struck the reef.
Question 38 · PC · medium

The fitness center at Camp Ridley surveyed its users last month. Many respondents said the weight room was too crowded between 5 and 7 a.m., when units finish morning formation. A few respondents said the cardio machines were also hard to get at that hour. The center manager plans to post hourly head counts by the door next month so users can pick quieter times.

Which statement is best supported by the survey results described in the passage?

Show the answer

Answer: A

Correct answer: Some respondents found the weight room crowded early in the morning. Find the quantity word for each claim: "many" for the weight room and "a few" for the cardio machines. A correct inference stays on the passage's rung or steps down, so "some respondents" is safe, while "most" and "every hour" climb higher than the evidence allows.

  • A (correct): "Many" respondents reported crowding, so "some" stays on the same rung of the quantity ladder or below it.
  • B: This climbs from "many" to "most"; the passage never says the complaints came from a majority.
  • C: Only "a few" mentioned the cardio machines, so "most" jumps several rungs up the ladder.
  • D: The complaints are limited to 5 to 7 a.m.; the passage says nothing about crowding at other hours.
Question 39 · PC · hard

Before the training flight, crew chief Maria Delgado told Captain Lena Ortiz that the helicopter had passed its preflight inspection. Ortiz thanked her but asked for one more look at the tail rotor, because she had felt a faint vibration in the pedals during the last flight. Delgado and the maintenance supervisor, Sergeant Ruth Kim, spent twenty minutes on the check and found a loose mounting bolt.

In the second sentence, who does she refer to?

Show the answer

Answer: C

Correct answer: Captain Ortiz. Test each possible referent against the passage's logic. The person who felt vibration in the pedals during the last flight must have been flying, and the sentence's subject, Ortiz, is the pilot asking for another check. Delgado gave the inspection report, and Kim appears only later, so she means Captain Ortiz.

  • A: Delgado is the nearest earlier female name, but she reported the helicopter had passed inspection; the person who felt the pedals in flight is the pilot.
  • B: Kim is not introduced until the third sentence and is never described as flying the helicopter.
  • C (correct): She is the person who felt a vibration in the pedals during the last flight, which fits the pilot, Ortiz, who is also the subject of the sentence asking for the check.
  • D: No flight instructor appears in the passage; this invents a referent.
Question 40 · PC · hard

A city health department compared neighborhoods that have community gardens with neighborhoods that do not. Over three years, blocks near the gardens reported fewer cases of vandalism and graffiti. Some residents credit the gardens, saying that neighbors who work side by side get to know one another and keep an eye on the street. However, the report also noted that most of the garden neighborhoods already had active block associations before any garden was planted. Because of this, the department said it could not tell whether the gardens themselves reduced vandalism or whether the same organized neighbors would have kept vandalism low anyway.

Which statement best expresses the main idea of the passage at the level of certainty the author uses?

Show the answer

Answer: B

The passage reports a pattern (fewer vandalism cases near gardens) and then explains why the cause cannot be pinned down. A correct main idea must keep that same careful strength, so it states the link without claiming that gardens, or block associations, caused the drop.

  • A: This upgrades a link into a proven cause, repeating the residents' opinion while ignoring the department's stated doubt.
  • B (correct): This keeps both halves of the passage: the pattern that was found and the department's warning that the cause is unclear.
  • C: This swaps one unproven cause for another; the department said it could not tell which factor mattered.
  • D: This is an accurate supporting detail, but it explains only the caution and leaves out the finding itself.

Mathematics Knowledge

15 questions · 31 min on the real test
Question 41 · MK · easy

How many terms are in the expression ?

Show the answer

Answer: D

Correct answer: 4. Terms are the pieces joined by plus or minus signs. Here they are , , and , so there are 4 terms. A constant counts as a term.

  • A: This counts only the terms with variables and skips the constant -1.
  • B: This counts something extra, such as the exponent, as a separate term.
  • C: This counts only the different letters, x and y, instead of the terms.
  • D (correct): Plus and minus signs split it into four terms: 4x^3, -2x, 7y and -1.
Question 42 · MK · easy

A triangular plot of land has corner angles of 39° and 88° at two of its corners. What is the angle at the third corner?

Show the answer

Answer: B

Correct answer: 53°. The interior angles of a triangle add to 180°, so the third angle is

180 - 39 - 88 = 53

°.

  • A: 127° is the sum of the two given angles, not the third angle.
  • B (correct): 180 - 39 - 88 = 53°.
  • C: This subtracts from 360°, but a triangle's angles total 180°.
  • D: This is an arithmetic slip; 39 + 88 + 63 = 190, not 180.
Question 43 · MK · easy

Taken by itself, how many solutions does the single equation

x + y = 12

have?

Show the answer

Answer: A

Correct answer: Infinitely many. One equation in two unknowns allows endless pairs, such as (2, 10), (5, 7) and (15, −3). Its graph is a whole line of solutions; a second independent equation is needed to narrow the answer to one pair.

  • A (correct): Every point on the line x + y = 12, such as (5, 7) or (0, 12), is a solution.
  • B: One solution needs a second independent equation; alone, many pairs add to 12.
  • C: A linear equation never has exactly two solutions; (1, 11), (6, 6) and (12, 0) already give three.
  • D: Many pairs, such as (6, 6), make x + y = 12 true.
Question 44 · MK · easy

A diver descends 48 feet in 6 equal stages, so the change per stage is −48 ÷ 6. What is the change per stage, in feet?

Show the answer

Answer: A

Correct answer: −8. Divide the absolute values,

48 ÷ 6 = 8

The signs are different, so the quotient is negative: −8 feet per stage.

  • A (correct): 48 ÷ 6 = 8, and a negative divided by a positive is negative.
  • B: The size is right, but unlike signs give a negative quotient.
  • C: This subtracts 6 from 48 instead of dividing.
  • D: This adds the numbers instead of dividing them.
Question 45 · MK · medium

A trapezoid-shaped flower bed has an area of 117 square meters and a height of 9 m. One of its parallel sides is 10 m long. How long is the other parallel side?

Show the answer

Answer: D

Correct answer: 16 m. Set up the trapezoid formula and solve for the missing base.

Multiply both sides by 2 and divide by 9:

10 + b = 26

so b = 16 m.

  • A: This is the sum of both bases; the known 10 m base still has to be subtracted.
  • B: This forgets the one half: 117 / 9 = 13 is taken as the base sum, and 13 - 10 = 3.
  • C: This divides the area by the height as if the figure were a rectangle.
  • D (correct): Doubling 117 and dividing by 9 gives 26 for the sum of the bases, and 26 - 10 = 16.
Question 46 · MK · medium

Which describes all values of x that satisfy both

and
Show the answer

Answer: C

Correct answer:

-3 < x ≤ 5

Solve each part.

2x + 1 > −5
gives
2x > −6
so
x > −3
3x − 4 ≤ 11

gives 3x ≤ 15, so x ≤ 5. An and statement keeps only the overlap:

−3 < x ≤ 5
  • A: The endpoints are right, but the inclusion is swapped: −3 is excluded (>) and 5 is included (≤).
  • B: This adds 1 to −5 instead of subtracting it, getting 2x > −4.
  • C (correct): The first gives x > −3 and the second gives x ≤ 5; and means the overlap.
  • D: This subtracts 4 from 11 instead of adding 4, getting 3x ≤ 7.
Question 47 · MK · medium

Two parallel lines are cut by a transversal. Two of the angles formed lie outside the parallel lines and on the same side of the transversal. If one of them measures 103°, what does the other measure?

Show the answer

Answer: C

Correct answer: 77°. Angles outside the parallel lines on the same side of the transversal are same-side exterior angles, and for parallel lines they are supplementary. The other angle is

180 - 103 = 77

°.

  • A: Same-side exterior angles are supplementary, not equal; it is alternate exterior angles that are equal.
  • B: This subtracts from 90°, but the pair must total 180°.
  • C (correct): Same-side exterior angles add to 180°, so the other angle is 180 - 103 = 77°.
  • D: This subtracts from 360°, which is the rule for angles around a point.
Question 48 · MK · medium

Look at the gaps in 0, 3, 8, 15, 24, ... and find the rule behind them. Which value occupies position 9?

Show the answer

Answer: B

Correct answer: 80. The gaps 3, 5, 7, 9 rise by 2 each time, so the pattern is quadratic. Testing :

1 − 1 = 0
4 − 1 = 3
9 − 1 = 8

The 9th term is

  • A: This is only the next term, the 6th; the question asks for the 9th.
  • B (correct): The rule is n² − 1, and 81 − 1 = 80.
  • C: This is the 8th term, 8² − 1, one position short.
  • D: This is the 10th term, 10² − 1, one position too far.
Question 49 · MK · medium

A section of ventilation duct is a cylinder open at both ends, with a diameter of 4 feet and a length of 15 feet. How much sheet metal forms the duct?

Show the answer

Answer: D

Correct answer: 60π square feet. Leave out the missing faces. The radius is 2 ft, and only the curved side is metal.

  • A: This adds two circular ends, but a duct open at both ends has no ends.
  • B: This adds one circular end that the open duct does not have.
  • C: This uses the diameter 4 as the radius in 2 pi r h.
  • D (correct): Only the curved side exists: 2 pi times 2 times 15 is 60 pi.
Question 50 · MK · medium

A square storage pad has an area of 130 square feet. Which value is closest to the length of one side?

Show the answer

Answer: D

Correct answer: 11.4 ft. The side of a square is the square root of its area. Since

and

is between 11 and 12, and closer to 11. Only 11.4 ft fits, and

  • A: This is below 11, but 11 squared is only 121, which is already less than 130.
  • B: This is above 12, but 12 squared is 144, which is already more than 130.
  • C: This divides the area by 2 instead of taking the square root.
  • D (correct): 130 lies between 121 and 144, so the side is between 11 and 12 ft, and 11.4 squared is about 130.
Question 51 · MK · medium

After combining like terms on the left side, which value of x satisfies

Show the answer

Answer: C

Correct answer: x = 7. Combine like terms on the left first:

4x − x = 3x
and
7 + 2 = 9
so
3x + 9 = 30

Subtract 9: 3x = 21. Divide by 3: x = 7. Check:

28 + 7 − 7 + 2 = 30
  • A: This comes from treating −x as +x, giving 5x + 9 = 30.
  • B: This comes from adding 9 to 30 instead of subtracting it, giving 3x = 39.
  • C (correct): Combining like terms gives 3x + 9 = 30, so 3x = 21 and x = 7.
  • D: This ignores the constants 7 and 2 and solves 3x = 30.
Question 52 · MK · hard

For nonzero y, which expression is equivalent to ?

Show the answer

Answer: A

Correct answer: y⁵. Multiply exponents for the power of a power:

Add exponents when multiplying:

Subtract when dividing:

  • A (correct): Power of a power gives y^12, multiplying by y^-2 gives y^10, and dividing by y^5 leaves y^5.
  • B: This treats the -2 exponent as +2, giving 12 + 2 - 5 = 9.
  • C: This adds the bottom exponent instead of subtracting it: 12 - 2 + 5 = 15.
  • D: This adds 3 and 4 for the power of a power, getting y^7, so 7 - 2 - 5 = 0 and y^0 = 1.
Question 53 · MK · hard

Three even numbers in a row, such as 10, 12 and 14, add up to 138. Which is the least of these three numbers?

Show the answer

Answer: C

Correct answer: 44. For three equally spaced integers the sum is three times the middle one, so the middle is

138 ÷ 3 = 46

Consecutive even integers are 2 apart, so they are 44, 46 and 48, and

44 + 46 + 48 = 138

The smallest is 44.

  • A: 46 is the middle integer, not the smallest.
  • B: This treats them as ordinary consecutive integers (45, 46, 47), but the question asks for even integers.
  • C (correct): The middle integer is 138 ÷ 3 = 46, so the even integers are 44, 46 and 48.
  • D: 48 is the largest of the three integers.
Question 54 · MK · hard

A triangular solar panel field is plotted with corners at (-2, -3), (7, -3) and (-2, 9), in grid units. How many square units does the field cover?

Show the answer

Answer: C

Correct answer: 54 square units. Two vertices share

y = -3

giving a horizontal leg of

7 - (-2) = 9

Two share

x = -2

giving a vertical leg of

9 - (-3) = 12
  • A: This multiplies the legs but forgets the one half.
  • B: This uses the 15 unit slanted side as the height; the height must be perpendicular to the base.
  • C (correct): The horizontal leg is 9 and the vertical leg is 12, and half of 9 times 12 is 54.
  • D: This takes half of 12 times 15, again using the slanted side instead of a leg.
Question 55 · MK · hard

In a circle, a chord 16 cm long lies 6 cm from the center, measured along a line perpendicular to the chord. What is the circumference of the circle?

Show the answer

Answer: C

Correct answer: 20π cm. The perpendicular from the center cuts the chord into two 8 cm halves. The radius to an end of the chord is the hypotenuse of a right triangle with legs 8 and 6.

The circumference is 2π(10) = 20π cm.

  • A: This adds 8 and 6 to get a radius of 14; the radius is the hypotenuse, not the sum of the legs.
  • B: This is the area, π times 10 squared, not the circumference.
  • C (correct): Half the chord, 8, and the distance, 6, give a radius of 10, so C = 20π.
  • D: This treats the chord as a diameter, but a chord 6 cm from the center does not pass through it.

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About this test

The format: 55 questions with a 122-minute limit, made up of 15 AR, 15 WK, 10 PC and 15 MK questions. The mix runs 14 easy, 27 medium and 14 hard, and all 44 AFQT lessons contribute.

Because no question here is repeated in another practice test, Form 6 gives you a clean read on your progress. Simulate test conditions, then use the explanations to target weak lessons. The final figure is practice accuracy only and does not stand in for an AFQT score.

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